CBT 04
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1.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing
A X
2.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____.
A.right crosswind
B.tailwind
C. left crosswind
C X
3.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up?
A.Over domestic only.
B.Over open sea.
C.Over domestic or open sea.
A X
4.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is
A. Developing lift.
B. Operating at high airspeeds.
C. Using high power settings.
A X
5.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A.122.1MHz
B.122.0MHZ
C.123.6MHz
B X
6.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?
A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.
B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.
C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.
B X
7.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
B X
8..An authoritative leader
A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
B X
9.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
A.Rate of turn
B.Angle of bank
C.True airspeed
B X
10.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?
A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
B.A severe moment or "tuck under"
C.-Severe porpoising
B X
11. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. back to the departure airport.
A X
12.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.13 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.16 minutes.
B X
13.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed?
A. By wind or the movement of air.
B. By convective mixing in cool night air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
A X
14. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
B.A runway Boundary Sign
C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
C X
15.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
16.. What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2,224 pounds.
B.1,987 pounds.
C.1,454 pounds.
A X
17. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
18.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
C X
19. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?
A.1
B.2
C.3
A X
20..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.
B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
B X
21. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B X
22.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is .
A. clockwise inbound wind
B.counter clockwise outbound wind
C.counter clockwise inbound wind
C X
23. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
A X
24.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted flight?
A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.
B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.
C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air.
B X
25. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
A.weather reports and forecasts.
B.names of all crewmembers.
C.minimum fuel supply.
B X
26.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
A.Increase in indicated airspeed.
B.Decrease in indicated airspeed.
C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing
B X
27. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. reduce speed to the assigned speed.
B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
C X
28.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC
A.77.5 percent.
B.75.3 percent.
C.79.4 percent.
B X
29. When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
B.In terminal radar service areas
C.Above 12,500 feet MSL
A X
30.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
31.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
32.. What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2 hours 12 minutes.
B.2 hours 15 minutes.
C.2 hours 18 minutes.
A X
33.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
34.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.
B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.
B X
35.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM?
A.ATMB NOTAMs office.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
36..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance
B. decreased takeoff distance
C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff
A X
37..Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to
A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation
B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me"
C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong
C X
38. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
A X
39..One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
40.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is
A.1Gs.
B.2Gs.
C.1.4Gs
C X
41.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least
A.3000m.
B.3,600m.
C.2,800m.
B X
42. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Pilot in command.
C.Director of operations or flight follower.
B X
43. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
44.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use?
A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.
C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.
B X
45.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than
A.17 hours
B.24 hours
C.25 hours
A X
46.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A worm front and mountain waves
B. A cold front and moderate icing
C. A stationary front and a upper jet
C X
47..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
A. Altocumulus
B. Cumulonimbus
C. Stratocumulus
B X
48.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
49. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight.
A X
50.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.4,000 feet.
B.4,300 feet.
C.4,500 feet.
A X
51.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
C X
52. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading?
A.143o.
B.233o.
C.53o.
A X
53. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
A.4
B.12
C.11
C X
54.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
55.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.
A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
C X
56.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
57.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.95 knots.
C.100 knots.
B X
58.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol
A.V2min .
B.V1.
C.VLOF.
B X
59. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
60. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
C X
61.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
62.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?
A.The same angle of attack.
B.A lower angle of attack.
C.A higher angle of attack.
B X
63.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
64.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
65.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
B X
66. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies?
A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land.
B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios.
C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.
C X
67.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C X
68.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
C X
69.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.VOR/DME FIX
B.Surveillance radar
C.Compass locator
C X
70.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
C X
71.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs?
A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.
B.ATMB NOTAMs office.
C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center.
C X
72.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10
A.732 pounds.
B.1,023 pounds.
C.1,440 pounds.
A X
73. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B X
74.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
75..Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process?
A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.
B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.
C.A and B
C X
76.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.
B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
B X
77.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?
A.inward and aft
B.inward and forward
C.outward and forward
B X
78.. What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?
A.24 minutes, 109 NAM.
B.25 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.23 minutes, 118 NAM.
C X
79.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C X
80. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report
A. within 10 days after the deviation.
B. after returning home.
C. after the flight is completed.
C X
81.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems
A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end
B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end
C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway
B X
82.. Under what condition is VMC the highest?
A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C.CG is at the most forward allowable position.
B X
83.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases?
A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing.
B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters.
C. takeoff, and landing.
A X
84.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased
C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
B X
85.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which
A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
C X
86.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
A.only pilots
B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants.
C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C X
87.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.Some passengers may be carried.
A X
88.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application?
A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.
B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.
C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.
A X
89.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?
A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B.Lower-than-standard air density.
C.Increased headwind component.
C X
90..The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following
A.(续正文,a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
91.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases
B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases
C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases
C X
92.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.
B. Position is not affected
C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed
A X
93.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
94.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____.
A. Light fog, visibility 4 km.
B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km
C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m
B X
95..If the authority gradient is too steep,
A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake!
B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.
C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
A X
96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.1,244 feet.
C.900 feet.
B X
97. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?
A.DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
98.. Which points should be report to ATC without request?
A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.
B. when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C X
99.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases?
A.Angle of attack.
B.Altitude.
C.Airspeed.
B X
100.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase?
A. The appearance of disordered low clouds
B. The appearance of anvil clouds top
C. It begins to rain on the ground
C X
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