CBT 25
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1..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.
B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
B X
2.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines?
A.VIS 1,600m.
B.RVR 200m.
C.RVR 250m.
A X
3.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from
A.the semicircular canals
B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons
C.the otolith
B X
4.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed
A.ZSSS
B.ZUUU
C.ZWWW
C X
5.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
6.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is
A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.
B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.
C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.
C X
7.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
A. A hard landing.
B. Increased landing rollout.
C. Landing short of the runway threshold.
B X
8.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct
A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa,
B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa,
C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa,
C X
9.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight?
A.4,200 feet.
B.4,500 feet.
C.4,750 feet.
B X
10.What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
A.-Increase the camber of the wing.
B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
B X
11.. What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70
A.5 hours 3 minutes.
B.5 hours 20 minutes.
C.5 hours 55 minutes.
A X
12.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.increased visual field
B.An increase in breathing rate
C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning
A X
13. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?
A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.
B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required
C.For flights at or above FL 180
B X
14. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A.Operations Specifications.
B.Operating Certificate.
C.Dispatch Release.
A X
15.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.
B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red.
C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.
A X
16.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be
A.3 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.30 minutes.
C X
17.When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
A X
18..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____.
A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport
B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport.
C. There are thunderstorms over the airport.
A X
19.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
B X
20.. What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30
A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR.
B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR.
C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR.
C X
21.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC,
A.75.4 percent.
B.74.2 percent.
C.72.9 percent.
A X
22.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
23.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be?
A.a participatory leader
B.an authoritative leader
C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory.
C X
24. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.
C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
C X
25.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. A stable layer of air.
B. An unstable layer of air.
C. Air mass thunderstorms.
A X
26.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green.
B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
C.One light projector with two colors; red and white.
B X
27.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?
A.2.06 EPR.
B.2.07 EPR.
C.2.09 EPR.
A X
28.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A.8 hours.
B.12 hours.
C.24 hours.
A X
29. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.
B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.
B X
30.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its
A.angle of attack
B.camber
C.energy
B X
31.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
32. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A.11
B.5 and 13
C.7and 11
B X
33.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is
A.V2.
B.V1.
C.VEF.
C X
34.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
B X
35.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
A X
36.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
37.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
C X
38.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A.Clearway.
B.Stop way.
C.Obstruction clearance plane.
A X
39.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter
A.G.
B.S.
C.R.
B X
40. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
B X
41.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A. Direct tailwind.
B. Light quartering tailwind.
C. Light quartering headwind.
B X
42.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148?
A.1,320 feet/minute.
B.1,400 feet/minute.
C.1,364 feet/minute.
C X
43. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
A.4
B.12
C.11
C X
44.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first
A. ZULS
B. ASSS
C. ZUUU
A X
45.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground?
A.VMC.
B.VMCG.
C.VMCA.
B X
46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?
A.1
B.8
C.11
A X
47.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration?
A.VS.
B.VS1.
C.VSO.
B X
48..Where do squall lines most often develop?
A.in an occluded front
B.ahead of a cold front
C.behind a stationary front
B X
49.What functions are provided by ILS?
A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle.
B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle.
C. Guidance, range, and visual information.
C X
50.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because
A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells
B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs
C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation
A X
51..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A. occasional light chop.
B. Moderate chop.
C. Intermittent light turbulence.
A X
52.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed?
A. By wind or the movement of air.
B. By convective mixing in cool night air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
A X
53.. Which points should be report to ATC without request?
A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.
B. when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C X
54..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?
A.Area with strong cold advection
B.Area where the sea and the land meet
C. Area near the front with thunderstorms
C X
55. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m.
B.DA93m,VIS1600m.
C.DA110m,VIS1600m
B X
56. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are
A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway
B X
57. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for
A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.
B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.
C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
C X
58.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
B X
59.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
60.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
61. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?
A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.
B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.
C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.
B X
62.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
63..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
64.. What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75
A.34,000 pounds.
B.28,000 pounds.
C.32,600 pounds.
C X
65.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A.A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B.The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
A X
66.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?
A. Ruddervator
B. Upper rudder
C. Leading-edge flaps
C X
67.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is
A.16hours
B.17 hours
C.18 hours
A X
68.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?
A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.
A X
69.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG?
A.127.85MHz.
B.124.35MHz.
C.121.65MHz.
A X
70.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs?
A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.
B.ATMB NOTAMs office.
C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center.
C X
71.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
72. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond?
A.6
B.7
C.12
C X
73.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
74.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
75.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs?
A. Advection fog.
B. Radiation fog.
C. Frontal fog.
B X
76.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff?
A.Clearway.
B.Stopway.
C.Obstruction clearance plane.
B X
77. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Pilot in command.
C.Director of operations or flight follower.
B X
78.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
79.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. 210 knots
B. 200 knots
C. 170 knots
B X
80.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Negative longitudinal static stability
B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability
C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability
C X
81. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A.difference training.
B.transition training.
C.upgrade training.
B X
82. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?
A.DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
83. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
84.. An alternate airport for departure is required
A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.
C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.
A X
85.. What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots?
A.13,500 pounds.
B.13,300 pounds.
C.15,300 pounds.
A X
86.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
87.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
B.An alternate airport is required.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
B X
88..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
89.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a too shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.a participatory leader
A X
90.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
91.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
92. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to
A.any required pilot crewmember.
B.any flight crewmember.
C.the pilot in command only.
A X
93.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
A X
94.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet.
B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet.
C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet.
A X
95. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "nil"
C X
96.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ
B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ
C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ.
B X
97.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
A.Some direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
B X
98. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.Four
B.Three
C.Two
A X
99.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
100.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur?
A.Below.75 Mach.
B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach.
C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach.
A X
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