CBT 29
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1.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is
A.1Gs.
B.2Gs.
C.1.4Gs
C C
2.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator
C.Outer compass locator.
B X
3.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___.
A. head windshear
B. turbulence
C. vertical windshear
C X
4.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident
B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action
C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents
C X
5.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
C X
6.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?
A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.
C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
B X
7.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A. At the poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).
C. At the equator.
C X
8.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion?
A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.
B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.
C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
C X
9.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
10..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
11.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should
A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured .
B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory ,
C. Select another type of navigation aid.
C X
12.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?
A.Low speed.
B.High speed.
C.Any speed.
B X
13.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
B X
14.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction?
A.To require a pilot to take a specific action.
B.To state some important information.
C.To warn the pilot.
A X
15. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport?
A. 170 knots
B. 150 knots
C. 130 knots
B X
16.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
C X
17. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is
A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport.
B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed.
C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.
A X
18.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
C X
19.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
20. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?
A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft
B.Airborne radar
C.DME
C X
21.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.
B.-positive longitudinal static stability.
C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A X
22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
A X
23.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation?
A.Higher than at low weight.
B.Lower than at low weight.
C.The same as at low weight.
A X
24.. Radiation fog usually appears in .
A. spring and summer.
B. winter and autumn.
C. summer and autumn.
B X
25.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan?
A.850.
B.K0850.
C.0850K.
B X
26.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard?
A.Six
B.Five
C.Two
B X
27. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A.The aircraft dispatcher.
B.Air route traffic control center.
C.Director of operations.
A X
28.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A. Light and variable.
B. Wind shear.
C. Frontal passage.
B X
29.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
30.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur?
A.Turbine inlet.
B.Compressor discharge.
C.Fuel spray nozzles.
A X
31.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
32. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel
A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.
B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.
B X
33.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
34.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM?
A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.
B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.
C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.
A X
35.．In flight, a good leader should
A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance
B.involve the team in most decision making processes
C.A and B
C X
36.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds?
A.500 feet.
B.800 feet.
C.2,700 feet.
B X
37.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?
A.Increases takeoff distance.
B.Decreases takeoff speed.
C.Decreases takeoff distance.
A X
38.What is the purpose of a servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
B X
39.. What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5?
A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM.
B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM.
C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM.
A X
40.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
C X
41.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
A.Initial buffet speed.
B.Critical Mach number.
C.Transonic index.
B X
42. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "good"
C. braking action is "100%"
B X
43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating?
A.RVR 300m.
B.RVR 400m.
C.RVR 250m.
C X
44.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?
A. Decrease profile drag.
B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.
C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
B X
45.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
46.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility
A.ZBAA
B.ZSSS
C.ZUUU
B X
47.. What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots?
A.9,800 pounds.
B.11,200 pounds.
C.17,000 pounds.
B X
48.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
49..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
50.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?
A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.
B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.
C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.
A X
51.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
B.Dynamic hydroplaning.
C.Viscous hydroplaning.
A X
52.. Where does a danger airspace may be located?
A.Over the territory only.
B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.
C.Over the open sea only.
B X
53.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and
A.reached the cruising IAS.
B.entered VFR weather conditions.
C.received an ATC clearance.
C X
54.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
55.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?
A.Increasing speed or altitude.
B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
B X
56..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.
B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
B X
57.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision?
A.don't read small print within one hour of flying.
B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.
C.avoid using contact lenses
B X
58.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
60.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
61.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
62.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.
C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
B X
63.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A. freezing rain
B. clear air turbulence
C. embedded thunderstorms
C X
64..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance
B. decreased takeoff distance
C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff
A X
65.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
66.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right
A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis
B.expectancy producing a mental block
C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis
A X
67.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
C X
68.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
69.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
70.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,000 feet.
C.2,350 feet.
B X
71.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?
A.Over open sea.
B.Over domestic only.
C.Over domestic and open sea.
B X
72.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes.
C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.
A X
73. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are
A.supplemental and commercial.
B.supplemental and domestic.
C.flag and commercial.
A X
74.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
75.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered
A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night
C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
B X
76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
77.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
78.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?
A. Ruddervator
B. Upper rudder
C. Leading-edge flaps
C X
79.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia
A.smoking and alcohol
B.fatigue
C.both A and B
C X
80.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds?
A.800 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.1,300 feet.
A X
81.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
82.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA
A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation
B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation
C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future
A X
83.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office
A.25 days ago.
B.15 days ago.
C.7 days ago.
B X
84.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
85..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___.
A. 17 m/s
B. 8 m/s
C. 6 m/s
A X
86.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
B X
87.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A. Expansion of air as rises.
B. Movement of air over a colder surface.
C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
A X
88.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct?
A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air
B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones
C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm.
C X
89.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
90.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs
A. give the wing a lower camber
B. increase wing sweep.
C.add slats
C X
91.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C.Limiting torque.
B X
92.. What is the ETE at .80 Mach?
A.1 hours 02 minutes.
B.1 hours 04 minutes.
C.1 hours 07 minutes.
C X
93.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A.VSO.
B.VS.
C.VS1.
B X
94.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
95.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
96.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
97. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
98.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A.V2.
B.VEF.
C.V1.
C X
99.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?
A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa.
B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.
C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
B X
100. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. When cleared for an IFR approach
B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
C X
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