CBT 31
成绩单题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明
1.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
2.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B X
3..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___.
A. 17 m/s
B. 8 m/s
C. 6 m/s
A X
4.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is
A.1Gs.
B.2Gs.
C.1.4Gs
C X
5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to
A.600m AGL.
B.Final approach fix.
C.The first holding pattern level.
C X
7.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
8.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
9..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B X
10. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?
A.100 feet AGL.
B.150 feet AGL.
C.200 feet AGL.
B X
11.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing
A. Wind shear warning
B. Aerodrome warning
C. Hazardous weather warning
A X
12.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader
A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
A X
13. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A.1922Z.
B.1952Z.
C.0022Z.
C X
14.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
15.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.ASR and PAR.
B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
B X
16.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
B X
17. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.500 feet
B.1,000feet
C.1,500 feet
B X
18.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out?
A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m.
B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m.
C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m.
C X
19.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
A.12hours
B.13 hours
C.14 hours
C X
20. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
21.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,
A.DICIDE
B.DECIDE
C.DECIED
B X
22.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?
A.Over open sea.
B.Over domestic only.
C.Over domestic and open sea.
B X
23.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
24.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA
A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation
B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation
C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future
A X
25.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
26. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. When cleared for an IFR approach
B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
C X
27.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o
A.FL118.
B.FL128.
C.FL138.
A X
28..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC?
A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.
B X
29.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____.
A.right crosswind
B.tailwind
C. left crosswind
C X
30.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
B X
31. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?
A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
C X
32.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control?
A.Supercharger gear ratio.
B.Exhaust gas discharge.
C.The desired manifold pressure.
C X
33.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold
A.a third-class medical certificate.
B.a second-class medical certificate.
C.a first-class medical certificate.
C X
34.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.2,100 feet.
B.2,650 feet.
C.3,000 feet.
C X
35.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.
C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.
A X
36.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from
A.the semicircular canals
B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons
C.the otolith
B X
37.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As air density increases, thrust increases.
C.As air density increases, thrust decreases.
B X
38.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.
B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots.
C. Not less than 250 knots
B X
39.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?
A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight.
B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight.
C X
40.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines?
A.High RPM and low MAP.
B.Low RPM and high MAP.
C.High RPM and high MAP.
B X
41.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed
A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure
B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa.
C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.
B X
42.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
43.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ?
A. Slats
B. Elevator
C. Dorsal fin
B X
44.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift
B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component
C.Compensate for increase in drag
A X
45.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
46. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
C X
47.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace?
A.Approach Control Regulation.
B.Visual Flight Regulation.
C.Instrument Control Regulation.
C X
48. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m.
B.DA93m,VIS1600m.
C.DA110m,VIS1600m
B X
49.When are inboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
C X
50.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
51.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described
A. Strong wind, bad visibility
B. Dust, thunderstorm,
C. Low cloud with strong wind
A X
52.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.strong leadership
B X
53. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
A.Company meteorologist.
B.Aircraft dispatcher.
C.Director of operations.
B X
54.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
55. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "nil"
C X
56.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A X
57.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
C X
58.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D
A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises
B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced
C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced
B X
59.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
60.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be?
A.a participatory leader
B.an authoritative leader
C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory.
C X
61.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path?
A.5times groundspeed in knots.
B. 8times groundspeed in knots.
C.10 times groundspeed in knots.
A X
62.. What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps?
A.123 knots and 3,050 feet.
B.138 knots and 3,850 feet.
C.153 knots and 3,450 feet.
C X
63. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?
A.1
B.8
C.11
A X
64.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?
A. cumulonimbus
B. front fog
C. layer clouds
A X
65.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation?
A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear.
B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.
B X
66.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____.
A. Light fog, visibility 4 km.
B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km
C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m
B X
67.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.
A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
C X
68. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck
A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.
B. in the interest of safety.
C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.
B X
69.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.
B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.
C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
C X
70.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is
A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h
B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots
C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h
B X
71.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
C X
72.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A.every 7 consecutive days
B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month
C.each calendar week
B X
73. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated?
A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C X
74.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?
A.632 feet per minute.
B.843 feet per minute.
C.737 feet per minute.
C X
75. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A.Operations Specifications.
B.Operating Certificate.
C.Dispatch Release.
A X
76.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating?
A.RVR 300m.
B.RVR 400m.
C.RVR 250m.
C X
77.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
78.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is
A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.
B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.
C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.
C X
79.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
80..What is a feature of supercooled water?
A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.
B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.
C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.
B X
81.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
82.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.
C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
B X
83. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
A.destination airport.
B.provisional airport.
C.alternate airport.
B X
84.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
B X
85.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?
A.Increasing speed or altitude.
B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
B X
86.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
87. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C X
88.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
89. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?
A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications
B.International Aeronautical Information Manual
C.International Notices To Airmen
A X
90.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?
A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.
C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
B X
91.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID?
A.760 feet/minute.
B.851 feet/minute.
C.699 feet/minute.
A X
92.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase?
A. The appearance of disordered low clouds
B. The appearance of anvil clouds top
C. It begins to rain on the ground
C X
93.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
94.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce .
A. layer clouds
B. smooth airflow and advection fog
C. warm front clouds
B X
95.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
96.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.
B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.
C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
B X
97..Where do squall lines most often develop?
A.in an occluded front
B.ahead of a cold front
C.behind a stationary front
B X
98.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
B X
99. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A X
100. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport?
A. 170 knots
B. 150 knots
C. 130 knots
B X
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