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帅哥发表于 2008-12-21 17:10:09

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 1
1.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?
A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.
B. the percentage of the proximate braking action.
C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.
A X
2.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described
A. Strong wind, bad visibility
B. Dust, thunderstorm,
C. Low cloud with strong wind
A X
3..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm?
A.It moves with the weather system.
B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings
C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land
B X
4.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
5.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A.Compressor discharge.
B.Fuel spray nozzles.
C.Turbine inlet.
C X
6.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane?
A.VLE.
B.VMO/MMO.
C.VLO/MLO.
C X
7.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?
A.Green yellow and white beacon light
B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
C X
8.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport,
A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current
B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale
C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current
A X
9.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?
A.Red
B.Amber
C.Green.
B X
10. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.
C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
C X
11.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C.Limiting torque.
B X
12. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B X
13.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
14.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,
A.DICIDE
B.DECIDE
C.DECIED
B X
15.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
16.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a too shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.a participatory leader
A X
17..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC?
A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.
B X
18.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
19.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
20.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A. Light and variable.
B. Wind shear.
C. Frontal passage.
B X
21.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent?
A.5.2%.
B.4.8%.
C.5.5%.
A X
22.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A.A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B.The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
A X
23.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
A.12hours
B.13 hours
C.14 hours
C X
24.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?
A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.
C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.
C X
25. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?
A.285
B.055
C.235
B X
26.. What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.143 knots.
B.144 knots.
C.145 knots.
A X
27.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.
C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
B X
28. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?
A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation.
B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.
C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
B X
29.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A.VSO.
B.VS.
C.VS1.
B X
30.. What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps?
A.123 knots and 3,050 feet.
B.138 knots and 3,050 feet.
C.153 knots and 2,050 feet.
B X
31. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are
A.supplemental and commercial.
B.supplemental and domestic.
C.flag and commercial.
A X
32..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing?
A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.
B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.
C. when exit the runway.
B X
33.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
34.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.
B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots.
C. Not less than 250 knots
B X
35.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C X
36.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.
B. Position is not affected
C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed
A X
37.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU)
A. 50 metres
B. 500 metres
C. 150 metres
C X
38. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above
A. FL200
B. FL240
C. FL250
C X
39.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard?
A.Two
B.One
C.Zero
B X
40.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
B X
41..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
A. Altocumulus
B. Cumulonimbus
C. Stratocumulus
B X
42.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency?
A.122.20MHz.
B.3016MHz.
C.8897MHz.
A X
43.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C X
44.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
45.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right
A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis
B.expectancy producing a mental block
C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis
A X
46.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
47.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As air density increases, thrust increases.
C.As air density increases, thrust decreases.
B X
48.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground?
A.VMC.
B.VMCG.
C.VMCA.
B X
49. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. When cleared for an IFR approach
B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
C X
50.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
51.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is
A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h
B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots
C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h
B X
52.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
53.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
A.Seven
B.Six
C.Five
A X
54.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG)
A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds
B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds
C. Bad visibility and strong wind
B X
55.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
56.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
57.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A. Ambient temperature lapse rate.
B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
A X
58.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:
A.Must be adhered to.
B.Does not preclude rejected landing.
C.Precludes a rejected landing.
B X
59.What is the purpose of a servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
B X
60. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
A.Not more than 1 hour.
B.Not more than 2 hours.
C.More than 6 hours.
A X
61.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10
A.732 pounds.
B.1,023 pounds.
C.1,440 pounds.
A X
62.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
63.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs
A. give the wing a lower camber
B. increase wing sweep.
C.add slats
C X
64.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than
A.800hours
B.900 hours
C.1000hours
C X
65.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers?
A.Hourly.
B.One hour and a half a time.
C.30 minutes a time.
A X
66..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
67.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
68. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Pilot in command.
C.Director of operations or flight follower.
B X
69. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A.1922Z.
B.1952Z.
C.0022Z.
C X
70.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted.
B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.
C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C X
71.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
72.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway?
A.128,000 pounds.
B.124,000 pounds.
C.120,000 pounds.
C X
73.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
74.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about
A.40 seconds
B.3 minutes
C.1 minute and 15 seconds
C X
75.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction?
A. At the Poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).
C. At the Equator.
A X
76. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
77. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
78.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
79.. What is the ETE at .80 Mach?
A.1 hours 02 minutes.
B.1 hours 04 minutes.
C.1 hours 07 minutes.
C X
80. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV?
A.5.0NM
B.7.5NM
C.10.0NM
A X
81..What is a feature of supercooled water?
A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.
B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.
C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.
B X
82.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.VOR
B.VOR and ILS
C.VOR and DME
A X
83.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway?
A.124,000 pounds.
B.137,000 pounds.
C.108,000 pounds.
B X
84.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs?
A.CCAFC.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
85.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.M9000.
B.S9000.
C.M0900.
C X
86.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up?
A.Over domestic only.
B.Over open sea.
C.Over domestic or open sea.
A X
87.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.
A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds
B. altocumulus clouds
C. false cirrus clouds
A X
88.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?
A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.
B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time.
C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis.
B X
89. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A.pilot in command and chief pilot.
B.pilot in command and director of operations.
C.pilot in command and the flight follower.
B X
90.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
B X
91.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
92. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when
A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign
B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line
C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.
C X
93. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B X
94.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
B X
95.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？
A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts.
B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.
B X
96.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased
C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
B X
97.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
98. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
B X
99..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
A X
100.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 2
1.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
2..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?
A.Area with strong cold advection
B.Area where the sea and the land meet
C. Area near the front with thunderstorms
C X
3.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be
A.3 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.30 minutes.
C X
4.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude?
A.Macho
B.Invulnerability:
C.Impulsivity:
C X
5.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment?
A. to check the performance of the aircraft;
B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety;
C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation.
C X
6.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou
A. Rain
B. Light fog
C. Fog
C X
7..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail
B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms
C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail
C X
8. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond?
A.5
B.5
C.15
B X
9.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning?
A.administer oxygen
B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth
C.give plenty of water
A X
10. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates
A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower
B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway
C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B X
11.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?
A.Low speed.
B.High speed.
C.Any speed.
B X
12. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
13.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift
B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component
C.Compensate for increase in drag
A X
14.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A.122.1MHz
B.122.0MHZ
C.123.6MHz
B X
15.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the
A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.
B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.
C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.
C X
16.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction?
A. At the Poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).
C. At the Equator.
A X
17.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion?
A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.
B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.
C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
C X
18.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be.
A. cumulus congestus
B. cumulostratus
C. towering clouds
C X
19.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to
A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.
B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.
C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.
C X
20.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is
A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h
B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots
C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h
B X
21.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of
A.requiring a pilot to read back.
B.keeping flight status.
C.requiring a pilot to take specific action.
C X
22.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency
A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach.
B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach.
C.to fly a normal approach.
B X
23.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL?
A.308KHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.240KHz.
B X
24. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
A.the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
B X
25.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
26. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?
A.4
B.15
C.17
C X
27.．An authoritative leader
A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
B X
28.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.
B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.
B X
29.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
30..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
31.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
32.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds?
A.800 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.1,300 feet.
A X
33.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace?
A.Air Traffic Controller.
B.Pilot-in-command.
C.Dispatcher.
A X
34. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.Four
B.Three
C.Two
A X
35.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase?
A. The appearance of disordered low clouds
B. The appearance of anvil clouds top
C. It begins to rain on the ground
C X
36.When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
A X
37.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
A X
38.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m.
B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m.
C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m.
C X
39.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
A.All turbine powered airplanes
B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only
A X
40.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A.Compressor discharge.
B.Fuel spray nozzles.
C.Turbine inlet.
C X
41.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
A. Notify ATC immediately.
B. Squawk 7600.
C. Monitor the VOR receiver
A X
42.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A.Clearway.
B.Stop way.
C.Obstruction clearance plane.
A X
43.. What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.34 minutes.
B.55 minutes.
C.57 minutes.
C X
44.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases?
A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing.
B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters.
C. takeoff, and landing.
A X
45.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
46.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
47. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A.11
B.5 and 13
C.7and 11
B X
48. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.500 feet
B.1,000feet
C.1,500 feet
B X
49.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B X
50. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
B X
51. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
52..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
C X
53.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Request a clarification from the ATC.
C.Read the clearance back entirely.
B X
54.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.
A.the change of sun radiation
B.the property change of the underlying cushion
C.the movement of the weather system
B X
55.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?
A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.
C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
B X
56.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D
A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises
B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced
C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced
B X
57.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
B X
58.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
59.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?
A.632 feet per minute.
B.843 feet per minute.
C.737 feet per minute.
C X
60.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
A. A hard landing.
B. Increased landing rollout.
C. Landing short of the runway threshold.
B X
61.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C X
62.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be
A.2Gs.
B.3Gs.
C.9Gs
B X
63.What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
A.-Increase the camber of the wing.
B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
B X
64.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.
C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.
A X
65.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C X
66.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
67.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A. Expansion of air as rises.
B. Movement of air over a colder surface.
C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
A X
68.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
69.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of
A.121.7MHz.
B.121.9MHz.
C.121.7KHz.
B X
70.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are
A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
B X
71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. 210 knots
B. 200 knots
C. 150 knots
B X
72.. What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1?
A.24 minutes, 118 NAM.
B.26 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.25 minutes, 118 NAM.
B X
73.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation?
A.Higher than at low weight.
B.Lower than at low weight.
C.The same as at low weight.
A X
74.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
75.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
C.Limiting torque.
B X
76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.372 feet.
B.470 feet.
C.525 feet.
A X
77. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "nil"
C X
78.. What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON
A.16,400 feet.
B.19,600 feet.
C.18,700 feet.
A X
79.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable?
A. The parcel of air resists convection.
B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill.
C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
A X
80.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.308 feet.
B.193 feet.
C.200 feet.
B X
81.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
82.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?
A.Does not cause illusions.
B.Lower than actual.
C.Higher than actual.
C X
83.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is
A.Plus or minus 6
B.Plus 6 or minus 4
C.Plus or minus4?
A X
84..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
A. rotor cloud.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Low stratus.
B X
85.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold
A.a third-class medical certificate.
B.a second-class medical certificate.
C.a first-class medical certificate.
C X
86.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C X
87.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet.
B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet.
C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet.
A X
88. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?
A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
A X
89.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
90.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?
A.2.06 EPR.
B.2.07 EPR.
C.2.09 EPR.
A X
91.What is load factor?
A.Lift multiplied by the total weight.
B.Lift subtracted from the total weight.
C.Lift divided by the total weight.
C X
92. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
C X
93.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course
A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.
B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.
C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B
A X
94.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
95.．If the authority gradient is too steep,
A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake!
B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.
C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
A X
96.. What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots?
A.9,800 pounds.
B.11,200 pounds.
C.17,000 pounds.
B X
97.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is
A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
98.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
B X
99.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct
A. Smoke with overcast
B. Strong wind with sand storm
C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration
C X
100..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 3
1.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
2.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
3.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.An alternate airport is required.
B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
A X
4.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A.Rapid, shallow breathing.
B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
C.Dizziness.
C X
5.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?
A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.
B. the percentage of the proximate braking action.
C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.
A X
6.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to
A.FL138.
B.FL128.
C.FL158.
C X
7.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A. Katabatic.
B. Advection.
C. Adiabatic.
C X
8.. What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1?
A.24 minutes, 118 NAM.
B.26 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.25 minutes, 118 NAM.
B X
9.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
A. A hard landing.
B. Increased landing rollout.
C. Landing short of the runway threshold.
B X
10.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. Strong wind with shower
B. Snow and rain
C. Strong west wind and blowing snow
C X
11.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is
A.162o.
B.172o.
C.167o.
C X
12.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.Some passengers may be carried.
A X
13.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou
A. Rain
B. Light fog
C. Fog
C X
14.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C X
15.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN?
A.FL 29,500 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
C X
16.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on
A.113.6KHz.
B.113.6MHz.
C.114.7MHz.
B X
17.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?
A.632 feet per minute.
B.843 feet per minute.
C.737 feet per minute.
C X
18.．The perception of color is a function of the
A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting.
B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting.
C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions.
A X
19.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning?
A.administer oxygen
B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth
C.give plenty of water
A X
20.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
A X
21.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
22..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
23. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the
A. ATC and dispatcher.
B. nearest CAAC district office.
C. operations manager (or director of operations).
A X
24.. What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70
A.5 hours 3 minutes.
B.5 hours 20 minutes.
C.5 hours 55 minutes.
A X
25.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?
A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift
B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component
C.Compensate for increase in drag
A X
26.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.117,500 pounds.
B.136,500 pounds.
C.140,500 pounds.
B X
27.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
28.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?
A.Higher than at low elevation.
B.Lower than at low elevation.
C.The same as at low elevation.
A X
29.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow?
A.supersonic mach number
B.transonic mach number
C.critical mach number
C X
30.. What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds?
A.127 knots.
B.149 knots.
C.156 knots.
C X
31.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As air density increases, thrust increases.
C.As air density increases, thrust decreases.
B X
32..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
A X
33.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃
B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃
C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃
A X
34.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
B X
35. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?
A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release.
B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
C X
36.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is
A. QNE
B. QNH
C. QFE
A X
37.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will
A.change
B.not change
C.may change or may not change
A X
38.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
39.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and
A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact
B.Request a new ATC clearance
C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved
C X
40.. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is
A. From A to B then to C
B. From A to C then to D
C. From A to B then to D
B X
41.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs?
A. Advection fog.
B. Radiation fog.
C. Frontal fog.
B X
42.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
43.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
44.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?
A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.
A X
45.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?
A.inward and aft
B.inward and forward
C.outward and forward
B X
46.．If the authority gradient is too steep,
A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake!
B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.
C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
A X
47.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
48.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
49.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?
A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B.Lower-than-standard air density.
C.Increased headwind component.
C X
50.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use?
A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.
C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.
B X
51.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
52.. What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps?
A.123 knots and 3,050 feet.
B.138 knots and 3,050 feet.
C.153 knots and 2,050 feet.
B X
53.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
54. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for
A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.
B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.
C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
C X
55..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance
B. decreased takeoff distance
C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff
A X
56.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.increased visual field
B.An increase in breathing rate
C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning
A X
57.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent?
A.760 feet per minute.
B.780 feet per minute.
C.800 feet per minute.
B X
58.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to
A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact
B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation
C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable
C X
59.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
B X
60.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ?
A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.
B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.
C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
B X
61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
62. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the
A. pilot in command.
B. air carrier's chief pilot.
C. certificate holder.
C X
63.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A.ARINC
B.Any FSS
C.Appropriate dispatch office
C X
64.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport?
A.124.35MHz.
B.127.85MHz.
C.118.8MHz.
C X
65.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
66.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is
A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others
B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible
C.does the first thing that comes to mind.
A X
67.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃
B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃
C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃
C X
68..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind?
A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
C X
69.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
70.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then?
A.1,398 feet.
B.1,026 feet.
C.1,381 feet.
C X
71.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
72.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C X
73.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
74. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.
C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
C X
75.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Positive dynamic stability.
B.Positive static stability.
C.Neutral dynamic stability.
B X
76.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which
A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
C X
77.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.
B X
78.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
79.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou
A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust
B. Strong wind with sand
C. Strong wind with haze
B X
80.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
81.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than
A.800hours
B.900 hours
C.1000hours
C X
82. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A X
83..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
84.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
C X
85.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as
A. stratus or nimbostratus
B. altostratus or stratocumulus
C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus
A X
86. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
A X
87.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will
A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.
B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor
C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor
B X
88.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A worm front and mountain waves
B. A cold front and moderate icing
C. A stationary front and a upper jet
C X
89.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.several headache
B.reduced visual field
C.a feeling of euphoria
A X
90.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
B X
91.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
92. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
93.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out?
A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m.
B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m.
C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m.
C X
94..Where do squall lines most often develop?
A.in an occluded front
B.ahead of a cold front
C.behind a stationary front
B X
95.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
C X
96.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC
A.77.5 percent.
B.75.3 percent.
C.79.4 percent.
B X
97.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed
A.ZSSS
B.ZUUU
C.ZWWW
C X
98.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
B.Dynamic hydroplaning.
C.Viscous hydroplaning.
A X
99.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Negative longitudinal static stability
B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability
C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability
C X
100.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land
B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event
C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 4
1. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A.pilot in command and chief pilot.
B.pilot in command and director of operations.
C.pilot in command and the flight follower.
B X
2. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are
A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway
B X
3.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A.122.1MHz
B.122.0MHZ
C.123.6MHz
B X
4.. An alternate airport for departure is required
A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.
C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.
A X
5.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A.VSO.
B.VS.
C.VS1.
B X
6.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude?
A.Macho
B.Invulnerability:
C.Impulsivity:
C X
7.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou
A. Rain
B. Light fog
C. Fog
C X
8.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
A X
9.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?
A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.
B X
10.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
C X
11.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
12..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind?
A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
C X
13.What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber.
B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber.
C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
B X
14.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be.
A. cumulus congestus
B. cumulostratus
C. towering clouds
C X
15. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
A X
16. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated
A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.
C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
A X
17.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A.every 7 consecutive days
B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month
C.each calendar week
B X
18. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
A.weather reports and forecasts.
B.names of all crewmembers.
C.minimum fuel supply.
B X
19.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur?
A.Turbine inlet.
B.Compressor discharge.
C.Fuel spray nozzles.
A X
20.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C X
21.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
C X
22.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
B X
23. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
24.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers
A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining
B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end
C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end
A X
25.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
26.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
27.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag
B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag
C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
B X
28.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
29.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator.
C.Outer compass locator.
C X
30.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
31.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?
A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa.
B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.
C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
B X
32.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is
A. outward, downward and clockwise
B. outward, upward and clockwise
C. inward, upward and counterclockwise
C X
33.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A cold front and a upper jet
B. A worm front and a upper jet
C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence
A X
34.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
A X
35.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.
B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C.decrease due to higher density altitude.
C X
36. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates
A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower
B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway
C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B X
37.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
38.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the
A.loss of the vertical component of lift
B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force
C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn
A X
39.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is
A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.
B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.
C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.
C X
40.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then?
A.1,398 feet.
B.1,026 feet.
C.1,381 feet.
C X
41.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard?
A.Six
B.Five
C.Two
B X
42. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?
A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.
B.At least one full stop landing must be made.
C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
B X
43.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A worm front and mountain waves
B. A cold front and moderate icing
C. A stationary front and a upper jet
C X
44.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter
A.G.
B.S.
C.R.
B X
45.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
46.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.VOR
B.VOR and ILS
C.VOR and DME
A X
47. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck
A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.
B. in the interest of safety.
C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.
B X
48.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
49.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R?
A.HIALS.
B.HIALS with PAPI.
C.PAPI.
B X
50. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the
A. pilot in command.
B. air carrier's chief pilot.
C. certificate holder.
C X
51.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from
A.the eyes
B.the inner
C.the proprioceptive system
A X
52.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
53.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
54.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is
A.998 hPa
B.1099.8 hPa
C.999.8 hPa
A X
55. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
56.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport?
A.8 feet.
B.10 feet.
C.12 feet.
B X
57.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be
A.2Gs.
B.3Gs.
C.9Gs
B X
58.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?
A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
A X
59.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A.V2.
B.VEF.
C.V1.
C X
60..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
61.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________.
A. the commencement of final approach
B. enter TMA
C. the commencement of initial approach
A X
62.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:
A.Of an intersecting taxiway only.
B.Of some designated point on the runway.
C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.
B X
63.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
64. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.
B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C X
65.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?
A.Increase speed.
B.Maintain speed.
C.Decrease speed.
C X
66.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?
A.Increase in indicated airspeed.
B.Decrease in indicated airspeed.
C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing
B X
67.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.
B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.
B X
68.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
A.Tabs.
B.Flaps.
C.Outboard ailerons.
C X
69.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?
A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight.
B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight.
C X
70..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
71.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.
A. Friction force.
B. Inertial centrifugal force
C. Coriolis deflecting force
C X
72..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
C X
73.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
A X
74.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
B X
75.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN?
A.FL 29,500 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
C X
76.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
77.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems
A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end
B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end
C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway
B X
78.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport?
A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft.
B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft.
C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation.
B X
79.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A.Critical engine failure speed.
B.Rotation speed.
C.Accelerate-stop distance.
A X
80.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport
A.during the entire flight.
B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
C.when the flight arrives.
C X
81.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate
A.342o.
B.347o.
C.352o.
B X
82.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will .
A. descend 2℃
B.descend 3℃
C. descend 4℃
A X
83.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember
A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.
B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.
C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
A X
84.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
85.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.VOR/DME FIX
B.Surveillance radar
C.Compass locator
C X
86.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m.
B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m.
C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m.
C X
87.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs
A. give the wing a lower camber
B. increase wing sweep.
C.add slats
C X
88.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
89. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is
A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport.
B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed.
C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.
A X
90. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to
A.any required pilot crewmember.
B.any flight crewmember.
C.flight engineer or navigator.
C X
91.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.45 seconds
C.1 minute
B X
92.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C X
93..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.
C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.
A X
94.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
95..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
96.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time.
A. From 08Z to 22Z.
B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z.
C. From 14Z to 22Z
B X
97.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A.Clearway.
B.Stop way.
C.Obstruction clearance plane.
A X
98.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than
A.10 hours
B.14 hours
C.16 hours
A X
99.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute
A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat.
B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat.
C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.
A X
100.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
成绩合计

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成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 5
1.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
2. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?
A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time.
B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit.
B X
3.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request?
A. expected holding speed
B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.
C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
A X
4. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. When cleared for an IFR approach
B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
C X
5.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ?
A.Heading.
B.Heading and altitude.
C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.
A X
6. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond?
A.6
B.7
C.12
C X
7.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.12,097 feet.
B.12,093 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
A X
8. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B X
9.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
10.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
11.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?
A.Maintain a constant altitude.
B.Maintain a constant attitude.
C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
B X
12. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "nil"
C X
13. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?
A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications
B.International Aeronautical Information Manual
C.International Notices To Airmen
A X
14. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?
A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft
B.Airborne radar
C.DME
C X
15. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.Four
B.Three
C.Two
A X
16.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products:
A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS.
B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS.
C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions.
A X
17. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within
A. 10 days.
B. 24 hours.
C. 5 days.
C X
18.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
B X
19. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Director of operations or flight follower.
C.Pilot in command.
C X
20.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
21.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A.entering approach controlled airspace.
B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.
C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
A X
22. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B X
23.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are
A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
B X
24.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is
A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
25. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of
A.127.6MHz.
B.127.6KHz.
C.114.7MHz.
A X
26.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.
B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation
C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.
A X
27.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?
A. Temperature inversion.
B. Wind stronger than 15 konts.
C. Surface radiation.
B X
28. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
B.A runway Boundary Sign
C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
C X
29.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.119,000 pounds.
B.136,000 pounds.
C.139,000 pounds.
C X
30.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in
A. A hard landing.
B. Increased landing rollout.
C. Landing short of the runway threshold.
B X
31.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A X
32.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
33. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
34. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?
A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
A X
35.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.10 feet.
B.8 feet.
C.12 feet.
A X
36.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
B X
37.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Negative longitudinal static stability
B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability
C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability
C X
38.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.M9000.
B.S9000.
C.M0900.
C X
39.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
40.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb
A.15 minutes.
B.14 minutes.
C.13 minutes.
C X
41.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.VOR/DME FIX
B.Surveillance radar
C.Compass locator
C X
42. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
A.1945Z.
B.2015Z.
C.0045Z.
C X
43.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
44. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated
A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.
C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
A X
45.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.
B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary
C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C X
46.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process?
A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.
B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.
C.A and B
C X
47.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
A. Notify ATC immediately.
B. Squawk 7600.
C. Monitor the VOR receiver
A X
48.. What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds?
A.100 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.750 feet.
B X
49. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
50.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
B X
51.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS)
A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters
B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above
C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above;
B X
52.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
A.VMU.
B.VMD.
C.VFC.
A X
53.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
B X
54.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
55.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
A X
56.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. Strong wind with shower
B. Snow and rain
C. Strong west wind and blowing snow
C X
57.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent?
A.760 feet per minute.
B.780 feet per minute.
C.800 feet per minute.
B X
58.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to
A.600m AGL.
B.Final approach fix.
C.The first holding pattern level.
C X
59.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.308 feet.
B.193 feet.
C.200 feet.
B X
60.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?
A.Lower than pressure altitude.
B.Higher than pressure altitude.
C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.
B X
61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
62.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.
A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B. decreases pressure gradient force.
C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
A X
63..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with
A.in cumliform clouds
B.in high clouds, such as cirrus.
C.In altocumulus cloud.
A X
64.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of
A.124.35MHz.
B.121.65MHz.
C.127.85MHz.
B X
65.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating?
A.RVR 250m.
B.RVR 400m.
C.RVR 200m.
B X
66.. What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30
A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR.
B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR.
C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR.
C X
67.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.
A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
C X
68.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to
A.0600z.
B.0630z.
C.0700z.
B X
69.．The blind spot is
A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.
B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina
C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.
B X
70.Identify REIL.
A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
C X
71.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.95 knots.
C.100 knots.
B X
72.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines
A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes
B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing
C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
A X
73.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
74. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV?
A.R-175
B.R-165
C.R-345
C X
75.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?
A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.
B X
76.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is
A.12hours
B.10hours
C.8hours
B X
77.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight?
A.4,200 feet.
B.4,500 feet.
C.4,750 feet.
B X
78.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
A X
79.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is
A.16hours
B.17 hours
C.18 hours
A X
80.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?
A.Over open sea.
B.Over domestic only.
C.Over domestic and open sea.
B X
81.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?
A.Increase speed.
B.Maintain speed.
C.Decrease speed.
C X
82.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
83. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel
A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.
B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.
B X
84. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has
A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.
C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
C X
85.. What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots?
A.13,700 pounds.
B.16,200 pounds.
C.17,700 pounds.
B X
86.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
87.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should
A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured .
B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory ,
C. Select another type of navigation aid.
C X
88. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
C X
89.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
90.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?
A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.
B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.
C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.
B X
91. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
C X
92.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
93.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
94. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
A.Company meteorologist.
B.Aircraft dispatcher.
C.Director of operations.
B X
95.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
A.9and6
B.9 only
C.6 only
A X
96.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
97.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
C X
98.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
99. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A.The aircraft dispatcher.
B.Air route traffic control center.
C.Director of operations.
A X
100.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.F1020.
B.S1020.
C.L1020.
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 6
1. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m.
B.DA93m,VIS1600m.
C.DA110m,VIS1600m
B X
2.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___.
A. head windshear
B. turbulence
C. vertical windshear
C X
3.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived
A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.
B. Position is not affected
C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed
A X
4.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed?
A. By wind or the movement of air.
B. By convective mixing in cool night air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
A X
5..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A. occasional light chop.
B. Moderate chop.
C. Intermittent light turbulence.
A X
6.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
C.Limiting torque.
B X
7..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
C X
8.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
9.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
10.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
11.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A. Ambient temperature lapse rate.
B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
A X
12..What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
C X
13.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
A X
14.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C X
15.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
16.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As air density increases, thrust increases.
C.As air density increases, thrust decreases.
B X
17.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.14 minutes.
B.16 minutes.
C.17 minutes.
C X
18.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.FL 10,100 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
B X
19.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be
A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind
B.clear, high wind, good visibility
C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility
A X
20. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
A X
21.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？
A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.
B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC．
C.A and B
C X
22.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.F1020.
B.S1020.
C.L1020.
B X
23.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A.Rapid, shallow breathing.
B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
C.Dizziness.
C X
24.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.ASR and PAR.
B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
B X
25.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is
A.1Gs.
B.2Gs.
C.1.4Gs
C X
26. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that
A. filling out logs
B. making passenger announcements
C. both a and b
C X
27.. What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps?
A.138 knots and 3,900 feet.
B.153 knots and 2,900 feet.
C.183 knots and 2,900 feet.
B X
28.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace?
A.To protect military activities only.
B.To protect science tests only.
C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.
C X
29.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent?
A.760 feet per minute.
B.780 feet per minute.
C.800 feet per minute.
B X
30.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use?
A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.
C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.
B X
31.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.80,850 pounds.
B.85,700 pounds.
C.77,600 pounds.
A X
32.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG?
A.127.85MHz.
B.124.35MHz.
C.121.65MHz.
A X
33.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at
A.The point cleared by ATC.
B.D38 to HUAIROU.
C.HUAILAI.
C X
34.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
B X
35.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
36. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment?
A.1360 feet.
B.3940 feet.
C.3842 feet.
C X
37.As the CG is moved forward, the stability
A.Improves
B.Decrease
C.dose not change
A X
38. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.
B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C X
39.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ?
A. Slats
B. Elevator
C. Dorsal fin
B X
40. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
B.A runway Boundary Sign
C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
C X
41.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft?
A.Immediately after ground contact.
B.Immediately prior to touchdown.
C.After applying maximum wheel braking.
A X
42.. What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?
A.24 minutes, 109 NAM.
B.25 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.23 minutes, 118 NAM.
C X
43.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
44. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?
A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release.
B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
C X
45.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
A.only pilots
B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants.
C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C X
46.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.
B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.
B X
47.. When can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan.
B. during emergency
C. both a and b
C X
48.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine?
A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.
B.As altitude increases, thrust increases.
C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
49.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
A.Tabs.
B.Flaps.
C.Outboard ailerons.
C X
50.TCAS I provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic
B X
51.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Positive dynamic stability.
B.Positive static stability.
C.Neutral dynamic stability.
B X
52. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
A.60 days.
B.90 days.
C.120 days.
C X
53. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Pilot in command.
C.Director of operations or flight follower.
B X
54.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
55. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
A.8
B.1
C.2
B X
56.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds?
A.500 feet.
B.800 feet.
C.2,700 feet.
B X
57..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm?
A.It moves with the weather system.
B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings
C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land
B X
58.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________.
A. at their destinations
B. at their alternate aerodromes
C. A and B
C X
59. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?
A.DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
60.. What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW,
A.58.1 minutes.
B.59.9 minutes.
C.54.7 minutes.
B X
61.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
62.. What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used?
A.138 knots and 3,900 feet.
B.153 knots and 2,900 feet.
C.183 knots and 2,900 feet.
C X
63.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?
A.Increasing speed or altitude.
B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
B X
64.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office
A.25 days ago.
B.15 days ago.
C.7 days ago.
B X
65.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is
A.blue.
B.white.
C.green.
B X
66.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A.prevent flow separation.
B.decrease rate of sink.
C.increase profile drag.
A X
67.. What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots?
A.13,700 pounds.
B.16,200 pounds.
C.17,700 pounds.
B X
68.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
69.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou
A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust
B. Strong wind with sand
C. Strong wind with haze
B X
70.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
71.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,000 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
72.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.VOR
B.VOR and ILS
C.VOR and DME
A X
73.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident
B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action
C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents
C X
74.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
75.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about
A.40 seconds
B.3 minutes
C.1 minute and 15 seconds
C X
76.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
77. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading?
A.143o.
B.233o.
C.53o.
A X
78.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.
B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary
C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C X
79.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace?
A.FL 6,000m.
B.FL 6,300m.
C.The first holding pattern altitude.
B X
80.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
C X
81.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur?
A.Turbine inlet.
B.Compressor discharge.
C.Fuel spray nozzles.
A X
82.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?
A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.
B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.
C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
B X
83.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
84.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
85.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is .
A. clockwise inbound wind
B.counter clockwise outbound wind
C.counter clockwise inbound wind
C X
86.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb
A.15 minutes.
B.14 minutes.
C.13 minutes.
C X
87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL?
A.308KHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.240KHz.
B X
88. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
89.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction?
A. At the Poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).
C. At the Equator.
A X
90. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has
A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.
C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
C X
91.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is
A. Smoke
B. Sand
C. Sand storm
B X
92.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance?
A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others
B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action
C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially
B X
93.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia
A.smoking and alcohol
B.fatigue
C.both A and B
C X
94.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
95.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW
A.9,926 pounds.
B.9,680 pounds.
C.9,504 pounds.
C X
96.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
97.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
98.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃
B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃
C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃
C X
99.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2?
A.2.115 EPR.
B.2.10 EPR.
C.2.06 EPR.
C X
100.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to
A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket
B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.
C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 7
1.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
2.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as
A. stratus or nimbostratus
B. altostratus or stratocumulus
C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus
A X
3.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is
A. Smoke
B. Sand
C. Sand storm
B X
4.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is
A.1,360 feet.
B.1,245 feet.
C.1,262 feet.
C X
5.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Request a clarification from the ATC.
C.Read the clearance back entirely.
B X
6.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
B X
7.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing
A. Wind shear warning
B. Aerodrome warning
C. Hazardous weather warning
A X
8. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A.11
B.5 and 13
C.7and 11
B X
9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
A X
10.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
B X
11.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
A X
12..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____
A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time
B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z
C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time
A X
13. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A.Operations Specifications.
B.Operating Certificate.
C.Dispatch Release.
A X
14.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training?
A.N.
B.S.
C.G.
C X
15.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to
A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation
B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me"
C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong
C X
16.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?
A.Higher than at low elevation.
B.Lower than at low elevation.
C.The same as at low elevation.
A X
17. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.2,000 feet
B.3,000 feet
C.3,500 feet.
B X
18. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. back to the departure airport.
A X
19. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when
A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign
B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line
C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.
C X
20. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A.1922Z.
B.1952Z.
C.0022Z.
C X
21.．After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about
A.30 minutes
B.1 hours
C.5 minutes.
A X
22.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
23.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3?
A.2.06 EPR.
B.2.07 EPR.
C.2.09 EPR.
A X
24.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to
A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket
B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.
C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.
C X
25.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A.122.1MHz
B.122.0MHZ
C.123.6MHz
B X
26.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A. Ambient temperature lapse rate.
B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
A X
27.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.
A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B. decreases pressure gradient force.
C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
A X
28. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
29. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for
A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.
B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.
C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
C X
30.. What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4?
A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM.
B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM.
C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM.
C X
31.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
A.All turbine powered airplanes
B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only
A X
32..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
C X
33.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct?
A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air
B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones
C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm.
C X
34. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
A X
35.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?
A.Does not cause illusions.
B.Lower than actual.
C.Higher than actual.
C X
36. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet
B X
37.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.
A.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
38.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
B X
39.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
40.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag
B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag
C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
B X
41.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
B X
42.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?
A.VMC.
B.VYSE.
C.VXSE.
B X
43.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur?
A.Below.75 Mach.
B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach.
C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach.
A X
44. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200.
C. FL 250.
C X
45. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
46.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than
A.10 hours
B.14 hours
C.16 hours
A X
47.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A X
48.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace?
A.Air Traffic Controller.
B.Pilot-in-command.
C.Dispatcher.
A X
49.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to
A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.
B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.
C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.
C X
50.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right
A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis
B.expectancy producing a mental block
C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis
A X
51.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.119,000 pounds.
B.136,000 pounds.
C.139,000 pounds.
C X
52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. 250 knots
B. 210 knots
C. 200 knots
B X
53.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed
A.ZSSS
B.ZUUU
C.ZWWW
C X
54.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.
C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
C X
55.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
56.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.increased visual field
B.An increase in breathing rate
C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning
A X
57.What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber.
B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber.
C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
B X
58..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm?
A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat
B. Rising terrain
C. Uneven heat on the ground
C X
59..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm?
A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force
B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor.
C. sufficient water vapor and front area
B X
60.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC
A.83.4 percent.
B.86.0 percent.
C.87.4 percent.
C X
61.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be
A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level
B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs
C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake
A X
62..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.
C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.
A X
63.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.F1020.
B.S1020.
C.L1020.
B X
64.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases?
A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing.
B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters.
C. takeoff, and landing.
A X
65.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
66. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A.difference training.
B.transition training.
C.upgrade training.
B X
67. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.1,500 feet
C.2,000 feet
A X
68.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
69. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights
B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone
C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone
B X
70.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh?
A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.
B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.
C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air.
B X
71..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
A X
72.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
73. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV?
A.R-175
B.R-165
C.R-345
C X
74.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.
A. Friction force.
B. Inertial centrifugal force
C. Coriolis deflecting force
C X
75.．If the authority gradient is too steep,
A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake!
B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.
C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
A X
76.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
77.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard?
A.Five
B.Four
C.Two
A X
78. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L?
A.HIALS with PAPI.
B.HIALS.
C.PAPI.
A X
79.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is
A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.
B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.
C.not considered to be part of a rest period.
C X
80.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
81.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A. At the poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).
C. At the equator.
C X
82.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing?
A. ZSSS
B. ZUUU
C. ZHHH
B X
83.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
84.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C.Limiting torque.
B X
85.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere?
A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low.
B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.
A X
86.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
87.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ?
A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.
B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.
C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
B X
88.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating?
A.RVR 300m.
B.RVR 400m.
C.RVR 250m.
C X
89.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?
A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude
B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
A X
90.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace?
A.Approach Control Regulation.
B.Visual Flight Regulation.
C.Instrument Control Regulation.
C X
91.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard?
A.Six
B.Five
C.Two
B X
93.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________.
A. the commencement of final approach
B. enter TMA
C. the commencement of initial approach
A X
94.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30
A.1,625 pounds.
B.1,950 pounds.
C.2,460 pounds.
C X
95.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?
A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red.
B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red.
C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red.
B X
96. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
C X
97. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
B X
98.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route
B.In VFR conditions
C.In day VFR conditions
C X
99..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.
C. There is an inversion with colder air below.
A X
100. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 8
1. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above
A. FL200
B. FL240
C. FL250
C X
2.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to
A.0600z.
B.0630z.
C.0700z.
B X
3.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport?
A.8 feet.
B.10 feet.
C.12 feet.
B X
4.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.FL 10,100 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
B X
5. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
A X
6.. What is the ETE at .80 Mach?
A.1 hours 02 minutes.
B.1 hours 04 minutes.
C.1 hours 07 minutes.
C X
7.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM?
A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.
B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.
C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.
A X
8.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a too shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.a participatory leader
A X
9.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A.Increase speed for a headwind.
B.Increase speed for a tailwind.
C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.
A X
10.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
C X
11.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
12.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is
A. outward, downward and clockwise
B. outward, upward and clockwise
C. inward, upward and counterclockwise
C X
13.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
14.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
15.．Hypoxia may be caused by
A.fly with a head cold
B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body
C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low
C X
16.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Low cloud and perhaps icing
B. Strong wind with bad visibility
C. Snow shower
A X
17. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
B X
18. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C X
19.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2?
A.2.115 EPR.
B.2.10 EPR.
C.2.06 EPR.
C X
20.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
21.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs?
A.CCAFC.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
22.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
B X
23.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A.prevent flow separation.
B.decrease rate of sink.
C.increase profile drag.
A X
24.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.
B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C.decrease due to higher density altitude.
C X
25. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?
A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation.
B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.
C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
B X
26.. What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40
A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR.
B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR.
C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR.
A X
27.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing
B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.
C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.
A X
28.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
A X
29.. It should be reported without ATC request that
A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute.
C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute.
A X
30.. What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds?
A.1,200 feet.
B.850 feet.
C.400 feet.
C X
31.TCAS I provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic
B X
32.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction?
A. At the Poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).
C. At the Equator.
A X
33.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
34.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway?
A.128,000 pounds.
B.124,000 pounds.
C.120,000 pounds.
C X
35.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C X
36.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to
A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside
B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument
C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power
B X
37.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.increased visual field
B.An increase in breathing rate
C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning
A X
38.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of
A.turbine inlet temperature.
B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
C.propeller thrust only.
B X
39.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.124,000 pounds.
B.129,500 pounds.
C.134,500 pounds.
A X
40..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.
B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
B X
41.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace?
A.FL 6,000m.
B.FL 6,300m.
C.The first holding pattern altitude.
B X
42.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.10 feet.
B.8 feet.
C.12 feet.
A X
43. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
44.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember
A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.
B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.
C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
A X
45.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?
A.Maintain a constant altitude.
B.Maintain a constant attitude.
C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
B X
46.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to
A.FL138.
B.FL128.
C.FL158.
C X
47.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include
A.high environmental noise levels
B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort
C.the receiver's expectancy
A X
48.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
49.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
C X
50. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
A.Company meteorologist.
B.Aircraft dispatcher.
C.Director of operations.
B X
51.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
52.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from
A.the semicircular canals
B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons
C.the otolith
B X
53..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET
A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence
B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence
C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters
A X
54.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
55.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Request a clarification from the ATC.
C.Read the clearance back entirely.
B X
56.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and
A.reached the cruising IAS.
B.entered VFR weather conditions.
C.received an ATC clearance.
C X
57.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than
A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours
B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours
C.10 consecutive hours of duty
C X
58.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is
A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others
B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible
C.does the first thing that comes to mind.
A X
59..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm?
A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force
B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor.
C. sufficient water vapor and front area
B X
60.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
61.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
62.. Radiation fog usually appears in .
A. spring and summer.
B. winter and autumn.
C. summer and autumn.
B X
63.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and
A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact
B.Request a new ATC clearance
C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved
C X
64..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
65.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater
A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km
B. 40 degrees, 2 km
C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km
A X
66.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
67.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,
A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.
B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.
C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .
B X
68.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10
A.732 pounds.
B.1,023 pounds.
C.1,440 pounds.
A X
69.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan?
A.850.
B.K0850.
C.0850K.
B X
70.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
71.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?
A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.
B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.
C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
B X
72..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
73.When are inboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
C X
74.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in
A. summer in northern areas.
B. spring in northern areas.
C. spring in southern areas.
B X
75.. What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used?
A.138 knots and 3,900 feet.
B.153 knots and 2,900 feet.
C.183 knots and 2,900 feet.
C X
76.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou
A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust
B. Strong wind with sand
C. Strong wind with haze
B X
77.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least
A.3000m.
B.3,600m.
C.2,800m.
B X
78.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is
A. Smoke
B. Sand
C. Sand storm
B X
79.. What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON
A.16,400 feet.
B.19,600 feet.
C.18,700 feet.
A X
80.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident
B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action
C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents
C X
81.The "runway hold position" sign denotes
A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway
B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway
C.Intersecting runways
C X
82.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent?
A.5.2%.
B.4.8%.
C.5.5%.
A X
83.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL?
A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.
C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
C X
84. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,500 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet
B X
85.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation?
A.Higher than at low temperature.
B.Lower than at low temperature.
C.The same as at low temperature.
A X
86.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC
A.83.4 percent.
B.86.0 percent.
C.87.4 percent.
C X
87.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,000 feet.
C.2,350 feet.
B X
88.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace?
A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts.
B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.
C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only.
A X
89.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?
A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made
B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb
C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent
A X
90.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
B X
91. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
92.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
93.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
A X
94.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating?
A.RVR 300m.
B.RVR 400m.
C.RVR 250m.
C X
95.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.2.01 EPR.
B.2.03 EPR.
C.2.04 EPR.
B X
96.Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
A.Altimeter setting.
B.Actual pressure at field elevation.
C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
B X
97.What is the purpose of a control tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
A X
98.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
99.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be?
A.a participatory leader
B.an authoritative leader
C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory.
C X
100.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.
C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.
A X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 9
1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A cold front and a upper jet
B. A worm front and a upper jet
C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence
A X
2.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.
A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility
B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog
C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence.
B X
3..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A. nimbostratus.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Cirrocumulus.
B X
4. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?
A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
A X
5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
6.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases
B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases
C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases
C X
7. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel
A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.
B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.
B X
8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
9.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A.Critical engine failure speed.
B.Rotation speed.
C.Accelerate-stop distance.
A X
10.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
B X
11.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A.headache and fatigue
B.a feeling of euphoria
C.impairment of vision and mental confusion
B X
12.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.
B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.
B X
13.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds?
A.800 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.1,300 feet.
A X
14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?
A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.
B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
C X
15.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
16.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C X
17.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow，
A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach.
B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach.
C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach.
B X
18.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.
B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
C X
19.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision?
A.don't read small print within one hour of flying.
B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.
C.avoid using contact lenses
B X
20.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
21. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading?
A.143o.
B.233o.
C.53o.
A X
22.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
23.. What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,200 feet.
C.2,750 feet.
A X
24.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance?
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Request a clarification from the ATC.
C.Read the clearance back entirely.
B X
25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?
A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension.
B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.
C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.
B X
26.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
27.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is
A.blue.
B.white.
C.green.
B X
28.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance?
A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others
B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action
C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially
B X
29.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
A X
30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN?
A.FL 29,500 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
C X
31.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong.
A X
32.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
33.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
34..What is a feature of supercooled water?
A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.
B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.
C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.
B X
35.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed
A. It is a warm front.
B. It is a stationary front
C. It is a Cold frongt
C X
36.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A. Light and variable.
B. Wind shear.
C. Frontal passage.
B X
37.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
38.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.
B.-positive longitudinal static stability.
C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A X
39.. What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW,
A.58.1 minutes.
B.59.9 minutes.
C.54.7 minutes.
B X
40.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
41.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is.
A.front
B.low pressure center
C.shear line
A X
42.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?
A.Does not cause illusions.
B.Lower than actual.
C.Higher than actual.
C X
43.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20?
A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important.
B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis.
C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency.
B X
45.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.80,850 pounds.
B.85,700 pounds.
C.77,600 pounds.
A X
46. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated?
A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C X
47.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design?
A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.
B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.
C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.
A X
48. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A. Person who found the emergency.
B. Person who heard the emergency.
C. Pilot in command.
C X
49.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?
A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B.Lower-than-standard air density.
C.Increased headwind component.
C X
50.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means
A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation
B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
B X
51.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first
A. ZULS
B. ASSS
C. ZUUU
A X
52.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight?
A.4,200 feet.
B.4,500 feet.
C.4,750 feet.
B X
53.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.
B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.
C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C X
54.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan?
A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.
C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.
C X
55. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A.The aircraft dispatcher.
B.Air route traffic control center.
C.Director of operations.
A X
56..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur?
A.-.50 to .75 mach
B.-.75 to .1.20 mach
C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach
B X
57.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?
A.Over open sea.
B.Over domestic only.
C.Over domestic and open sea.
B X
58.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
59. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.2,000 feet
B.2,500 feet
C.3,000 feet
C X
60.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
61.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
B X
62.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.ASR and PAR.
B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
B X
63.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is
A.19hours
B.20 hours
C.21hours
B X
65.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.
B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots.
C. Not less than 250 knots
B X
66.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
67.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is
A.342o.
B.347o.
C.352o.
A X
68.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are .
A.nimbostratus
B.cumulonimbus
C.altostratus.
B X
69.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:
A.Of an intersecting taxiway only.
B.Of some designated point on the runway.
C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.
B X
70..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
71.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
72..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm?
A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat
B. Rising terrain
C. Uneven heat on the ground
C X
73.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation?
A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear.
B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.
B X
74.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?
A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.
C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
B X
75.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.
B X
76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
C X
77.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace?
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
B X
78.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
79.. What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.30 minutes.
B.45 minutes.
C.29 minutes.
B X
80.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?
A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.
B. the percentage of the proximate braking action.
C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.
A X
81.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
82. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
83.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL?
A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.
C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
C X
84.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
85. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
B.is not required to have a medical certificate.
C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B X
86.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?
A.The same angle of attack.
B.A lower angle of attack.
C.A higher angle of attack.
B X
87..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
88.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed?
A. By wind or the movement of air.
B. By convective mixing in cool night air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
A X
89..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
C X
90. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
91.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,
A.DICIDE
B.DECIDE
C.DECIED
B X
92.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway?
A.128,000 pounds.
B.124,000 pounds.
C.120,000 pounds.
C X
93. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?
A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time.
B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit.
B X
94.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed
A.ZSSS
B.ZUUU
C.ZWWW
C X
95.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
B X
96.. What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.143 knots.
B.144 knots.
C.145 knots.
A X
97.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence?
A. ZUUU
B. ZHHH
C. ZSSS
C X
98. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.
B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.
B X
99. Group II aircraft are
A.Propeller driven aircraft
B.Turbojet aircraft
C.3/4 engine aircraft
B X
100.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing?
A. ZSSS
B. ZUUU
C. ZHHH
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明 10
1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
2.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
A X
3.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
4.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
A.12hours
B.13 hours
C.14 hours
C X
5.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.
B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary
C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C X
6.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing
A X
7.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?
A.inward and aft
B.inward and forward
C.outward and forward
B X
8.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
9.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.VOR/DME FIX
B.Surveillance radar
C.Compass locator
C X
10.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"?
A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight.
B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight.
C X
11. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?
A.1
B.8
C.11
A X
12.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
13.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.12,097 feet.
B.12,093 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
A X
14.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.2,100 feet.
B.2,650 feet.
C.3,000 feet.
C X
15.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
16.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report?
A. passengers on board
B. ordering galley supplies
C. when an approach has been missed.
C X
17.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?
A.Red
B.Amber
C.Green
C X
18..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET
A. Strong wind, volcanic ash
B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail
C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus
C X
19. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
20.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
21.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
B X
22.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
23.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
24.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
25.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
26.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to
A.0600z.
B.0630z.
C.0700z.
B X
27.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
28..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
C X
29.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on
A.113.6KHz.
B.113.6MHz.
C.114.7MHz.
B X
30.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B X
31.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
B.varies with the rate of turn.
C.is constant
C X
32.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct?
A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air
B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones
C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm.
C X
33.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out?
A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m.
B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m.
C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m.
C X
34.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
B X
35. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
36.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?
A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack
B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack
B X
37.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
38.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM?
A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.
B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.
C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.
A X
39.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.
B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
C X
40.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?
A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude
C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents
A X
41.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
B X
42.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to
A.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high
B.after a period of intense concentration
C.during normal operation
C X
43.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.FL 10,100 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
B X
45.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
46.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases
B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases
C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases
C X
47.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
48.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of
A.requiring a pilot to read back.
B.keeping flight status.
C.requiring a pilot to take specific action.
C X
49.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
50. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A. Person who found the emergency.
B. Person who heard the emergency.
C. Pilot in command.
C X
51.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
52.. What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach?
A.22,140 pounds.
B.22,556 pounds.
C.22,972 pounds.
B X
53.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
A.Maximum range and distance glide.
B.Best angle of climb.
C.Maximum endurance.
A X
54.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
A X
55.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
A.Green yellow and white beacon light
B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
A X
56.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?
A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.
A X
57. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A X
58.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is
A. outward, downward and clockwise
B. outward, upward and clockwise
C. inward, upward and counterclockwise
C X
59..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.
B. Headwind or tailwind increase
C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
C X
60.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility
A.ZBAA
B.ZSSS
C.ZUUU
B X
61.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is
A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.
B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.
C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.
C X
62.What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.
B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.
C X
63.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd
A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence
B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence
C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing
B X
64. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.
C.120 days after issue or renewal.
A X
65.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
B.Increased vision keenness.
C.Decreased breathing rate.
A X
66.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
67.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?
A. Ruddervator
B. Upper rudder
C. Leading-edge flaps
C X
68..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease?
A. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.
A X
69.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
A.Apply full main wheel braking only.
B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.
C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.
C X
70.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited?
A. 3,000 meters.
B. 3,600 meters.
C. 6,000 meters.
A X
71.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
72.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of
A.124.35MHz.
B.121.65MHz.
C.127.85MHz.
B X
73.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front?
A.wind speed
B.air temperature
C.air pressure
B X
74.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?
A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude
B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
A X
75.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from
A.the semicircular canals
B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons
C.the otolith
B X
76.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
A.Seven
B.Six
C.Five
A X
77.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.95 knots.
C.100 knots.
B X
78.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct
A. Smoke with overcast
B. Strong wind with sand storm
C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration
C X
79. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B X
80. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the
A. ATC and dispatcher.
B. nearest CAAC district office.
C. operations manager (or director of operations).
A X
81.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd
A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms
B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence
C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence
C X
82.．An authoritative leader
A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
B X
83.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is
A.342o.
B.347o.
C.352o.
A X
84.．If the authority gradient is too steep,
A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake!
B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.
C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
A X
85.Holding position signs have
A.White inscriptions on a red background
B.Red inscriptions on a white background
C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background
A X
86.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.372 feet.
B.470 feet.
C.525 feet.
A X
88.. A plane, MH 60°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
89..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B X
90.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
B X
91.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be
A.3 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.30 minutes.
C X
92.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
B X
93.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines?
A.High RPM and low MAP.
B.Low RPM and high MAP.
C.High RPM and high MAP.
B X
94.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
95.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground?
A.VMC.
B.VMCG.
C.VMCA.
B X
96.What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber.
B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber.
C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
B X
97.Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
A.Altimeter setting.
B.Actual pressure at field elevation.
C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
B X
98.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou
A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust
B. Strong wind with sand
C. Strong wind with haze
B X
99.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as .
A.plume
B.virga
C. dowdraft
B X
100.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. Strong wind with shower
B. Snow and rain
C. Strong west wind and blowing snow
C X
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