CBT B

帅哥发表于 2008-12-21 17:10:37

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,
A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.
B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.
C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .
A X
2.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway?
A.128,000 pounds.
B.124,000 pounds.
C.120,000 pounds.
C X
3.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
4.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than
A.800hours
B.900 hours
C.1000hours
C X
5.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
6.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine?
A.RPM.
B.Exhaust gas temperature.
C.Manifold pressure.
C X
7.. When can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan.
B. during emergency
C. both a and b
C X
8. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
C X
9.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
10.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to
A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.
B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.
C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.
C X
11.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.14 minutes.
B.16 minutes.
C.17 minutes.
C X
12.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
13.. Radiation fog usually appears in .
A. spring and summer.
B. winter and autumn.
C. summer and autumn.
B X
14.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is
A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred
B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change
C.Do what we must to do in the situation
A X
15.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
16.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following
A.(续正文，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
17.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
18. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates
A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower
B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway
C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B X
19.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW
A.11,227 pounds.
B.11,503 pounds.
C.11,754 pounds.
A X
20.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.
A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.
C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.
C X
21. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
A.the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
B X
22.. What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF
A.24,600 feet.
B.23,400 feet.
C.20,000 feet.
A X
23.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of
A.40 kilometers.
B.50 kilometers.
C.46 kilometers.
B X
24. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
25.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow?
A.supersonic mach number
B.transonic mach number
C.critical mach number
C X
26. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
27.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
28.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A.pitching up.
B.pitching down.
C.leveling off.
A X
29.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?
A. cumulonimbus
B. front fog
C. layer clouds
A X
30.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A.8 hours.
B.12 hours.
C.24 hours.
A X
31.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
C X
32. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A.Operations Specifications.
B.Operating Certificate.
C.Dispatch Release.
A X
33.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
34.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.119,000 pounds.
B.136,000 pounds.
C.139,000 pounds.
C X
35.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
36.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B X
37.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers?
A.Hourly.
B.One hour and a half a time.
C.30 minutes a time.
A X
38.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,
A.DICIDE
B.DECIDE
C.DECIED
B X
39..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET
A. Strong wind, volcanic ash
B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail
C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus
C X
40.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
C X
41.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.An alternate airport is required.
B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
A X
42.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation?
A.Higher than at low temperature.
B.Lower than at low temperature.
C.The same as at low temperature.
A X
43..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____
A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time
B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z
C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time
A X
44.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.95 knots.
C.100 knots.
B X
45.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency
A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach.
B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach.
C.to fly a normal approach.
B X
46. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.
B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.
B X
47. When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
B.In terminal radar service areas
C.Above 12,500 feet MSL
A X
48.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.
C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
B X
49.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
50.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?
A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
A X
51.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
52.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of
A.turbine inlet temperature.
B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
C.propeller thrust only.
B X
53. Group II aircraft are
A.Propeller driven aircraft
B.Turbojet aircraft
C.3/4 engine aircraft
B X
54.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
55.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then?
A.1,398 feet.
B.1,026 feet.
C.1,381 feet.
C X
56.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
57.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines?
A.VIS 1,600m.
B.RVR 200m.
C.RVR 250m.
A X
58.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter
A.N.
B.M.
C.X.
A X
59.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C.Limiting torque.
B X
60.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on
A.113.6KHz.
B.113.6MHz.
C.114.7MHz.
B X
61.When are inboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
C X
62.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft.
B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
B X
63.What is the purpose of a control tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
A X
64. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
65.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃
B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃
C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃
A X
66. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?
A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B X
67.When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
A X
68.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when
A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight
B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.
C X
69.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
70.What affects indicated stall speed?
A. Weight, load factor, and power
B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power
C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed
A X
71.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
72.．Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and
A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
73.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is
A. QNE
B. QNH
C. QFE
A X
74.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine?
A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.
B.As altitude increases, thrust increases.
C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
75. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
A.weather reports and forecasts.
B.names of all crewmembers.
C.minimum fuel supply.
B X
76.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ?
A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.
B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.
C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
B X
77.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148?
A.1,320 feet/minute.
B.1,400 feet/minute.
C.1,364 feet/minute.
C X
78.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport?
A.124.35MHz.
B.127.85MHz.
C.118.8MHz.
C X
79.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to?
A.FL158.
B.FL148.
C.FL168.
B X
80.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates
A. the absence of clouds in the area
B. an area of no convective turbulence
C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected
C X
81.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about
A.40 seconds
B.3 minutes
C.1 minute and 15 seconds
C X
82.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ?
A.Heading.
B.Heading and altitude.
C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.
A X
83..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur?
A.-.50 to .75 mach
B.-.75 to .1.20 mach
C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach
B X
84.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one?
A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence
B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time
C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas
B X
85.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C X
86.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard?
A.Two
B.One
C.Zero
B X
87. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A.pilot in command and chief pilot.
B.pilot in command and director of operations.
C.pilot in command and the flight follower.
B X
88.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the
A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.
B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.
C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.
C X
89.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10
A.732 pounds.
B.1,023 pounds.
C.1,440 pounds.
A X
90.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is
A. Smoke
B. Sand
C. Sand storm
B X
91.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters?
A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots.
B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots.
C. Not less than 250 knots
B X
92.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.124,000 pounds.
B.129,500 pounds.
C.134,500 pounds.
A X
93.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?
A.Increasing speed or altitude.
B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
B X
94. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV?
A.R-175
B.R-165
C.R-345
C X
95.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
C.Limiting torque.
B X
96.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace?
A.FL 6,000m.
B.FL 6,300m.
C.FL 6,600m.
A X
97..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___.
A. 17 m/s
B. 8 m/s
C. 6 m/s
A X
98.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
99.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs?
A.CCAFC.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
100.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is
A.Plus or minus 6
B.Plus 6 or minus 4
C.Plus or minus4?
A X
2.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?
A. clear ice.
B. Frost ice.
C. Rime ice.
B X
3.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described
A. Strong wind, bad visibility
B. Dust, thunderstorm,
C. Low cloud with strong wind
A X
4.What does the tri-color VASI consist of?
A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber.
B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber.
C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
B X
5.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in
A. summer in northern areas.
B. spring in northern areas.
C. spring in southern areas.
B X
6.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before
A.1330 Beijing Time.
B.1300 Beijing Time.
C.1230 Beijing Time.
C X
7. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
A.Company meteorologist.
B.Aircraft dispatcher.
C.Director of operations.
B X
8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
9.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
10..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____
A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time
B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z
C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time
A X
11.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
12. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?
A.Upgrade training.
B.Recurrent training.
C.Initial training.
A X
13. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
14.One purpose of high-lift devices is to
A.- increase the load factor.
B.delay stall.
C.increase airspeed.
B X
15..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC?
A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.
B X
16..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.
C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.
A X
17.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
18.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,000 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
19.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.M9000.
B.S9000.
C.M0900.
C X
20.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is
A. Developing lift.
B. Operating at high airspeeds.
C. Using high power settings.
A X
21..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with
A.in cumliform clouds
B.in high clouds, such as cirrus.
C.In altocumulus cloud.
A X
22.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW
A.9,926 pounds.
B.9,680 pounds.
C.9,504 pounds.
C X
23. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated?
A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
C X
24.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
25.. Under what condition is VMC the highest?
A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C.CG is at the most forward allowable position.
B X
26.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
C X
27.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?
A.Increases takeoff distance.
B.Decreases takeoff speed.
C.Decreases takeoff distance.
A X
28. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Director of operations or flight follower.
C.Pilot in command.
C X
29.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to
A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation
B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me"
C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong
C X
30. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding
A.6 calendar months.
B.12 calendar months.
C.24 calendar months.
A X
31.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport?
A.8 feet.
B.10 feet.
C.12 feet.
B X
32.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about
A.5000 feet
B.10000 feet
C.8000 feet
A X
33. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the
A.Airplane Flight Manual
B.International Flight Information Manual
C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications
C X
34.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase?
A. The appearance of disordered low clouds
B. The appearance of anvil clouds top
C. It begins to rain on the ground
C X
35.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds?
A.100 feet.
B.400 feet.
C.850 feet.
C X
36.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
37.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered
A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night
C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
B X
38. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet.
B X
39.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
40.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan?
A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.
C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.
C X
41.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D
A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises
B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced
C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced
B X
42.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include
A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language
B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system
C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload
B X
43.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases
B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases
C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases
C X
44.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
45..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
A X
46. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond?
A.6
B.7
C.12
C X
47.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?
A. cumulonimbus
B. front fog
C. layer clouds
A X
48.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?
A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made
B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb
C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent
A X
49.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
50.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right
A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis
B.expectancy producing a mental block
C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis
A X
51.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.
B. Original dispatch release.
C. Certificate holder's manual.
C X
52.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
A X
53. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
A X
54.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?
A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.
A X
55..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft?
A. in the center of strong downdraft burst
B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst
C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst
A X
56..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain
B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms
C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing
C X
57.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.
A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds
B. altocumulus clouds
C. false cirrus clouds
A X
58. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. increase speed to the assigned speed.
B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.
C X
59.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
60.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
61.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
62.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
A.Initial buffet speed.
B.Critical Mach number.
C.Transonic index.
B X
63.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time.
A. From 08Z to 22Z.
B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z.
C. From 14Z to 22Z
B X
64.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace?
A.FL 6,000m.
B.FL 6,300m.
C.FL 6,600m.
A X
65.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
66. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
A.Not more than 1 hour.
B.Not more than 2 hours.
C.More than 6 hours.
A X
67. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
68.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
B X
69. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within
A. 10 days.
B. 24 hours.
C. 5 days.
C X
70.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
71.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
72.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG)
A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds
B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds
C. Bad visibility and strong wind
B X
73.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport?
A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft.
B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft.
C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation.
B X
74.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
75..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing.
A. remain unchanged
B. increase
C. reduce
B X
76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out?
A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m.
B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m.
C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m.
C X
77.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
78. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations?
A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
C.If required by the airplane's type certificate.
C X
79. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.
B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.
C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.
B X
80.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator
C.Outer compass locator.
B X
81. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
B X
82.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight?
A.4,200 feet.
B.4,500 feet.
C.4,750 feet.
B X
83.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
A X
84.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
A. flying in any clouds.
B. Flying in rain.
C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.
C X
85.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.119,000 pounds.
B.136,000 pounds.
C.139,000 pounds.
C X
86.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
87.The "runway hold position" sign denotes
A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway
B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway
C.Intersecting runways
C X
88. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"?
A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time.
B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
A X
89.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.
B X
90.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path?
A.5times groundspeed in knots.
B. 8times groundspeed in knots.
C.10 times groundspeed in knots.
A X
91.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent?
A.760 feet per minute.
B.780 feet per minute.
C.800 feet per minute.
B X
92.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines
A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes
B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing
C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
A X
93. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for
A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
94.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW
A.11,227 pounds.
B.11,503 pounds.
C.11,754 pounds.
A X
95.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
A.Tabs.
B.Flaps.
C.Outboard ailerons.
C X
96. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
A.4
B.12
C.11
C X
97.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A.entering approach controlled airspace.
B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.
C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
A X
98.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
A.Some direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
B X
99. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
100.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia
A.smoking and alcohol
B.fatigue
C.both A and B
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.ASR and PAR.
B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.
C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
B X
2.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL?
A.308KHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.240KHz.
B X
3.One purpose of high-lift devices is to
A.- increase the load factor.
B.delay stall.
C.increase airspeed.
B X
4.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R?
A.HIALS.
B.HIALS with PAPI.
C.PAPI.
B X
5.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.
B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C.decrease due to higher density altitude.
C X
6.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.
B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red.
C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.
A X
7.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?
A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.
B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route.
C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.
A X
8.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
9.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
B X
10.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader
A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
A X
11.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is
A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others
B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible
C.does the first thing that comes to mind.
A X
12.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG?
A.127.85MHz.
B.124.35MHz.
C.121.65MHz.
A X
13. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights
B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone
C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone
B X
14.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?
A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
B.A severe moment or "tuck under"
C.-Severe porpoising
B X
15..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.
B. Headwind or tailwind increase
C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
C X
16.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____.
A. Light fog, visibility 4 km.
B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km
C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m
B X
17. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"?
A.a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time.
B.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
A X
18.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
A X
19.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
20.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
21.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is
A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred
B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change
C.Do what we must to do in the situation
A X
22.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40
A.3,625 pounds.
B.3,240 pounds.
C.2,980 pounds.
B X
23. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A.pilot in command and chief pilot.
B.pilot in command and director of operations.
C.pilot in command and the flight follower.
B X
24. When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
B.In terminal radar service areas
C.Above 12,500 feet MSL
A X
25.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,
A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.
B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.
C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .
B X
26.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow，
A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach.
B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach.
C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach.
B X
27.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
28.TCASII provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic
A X
29. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within
A. 10 days.
B. 24 hours.
C. 5 days.
C X
30.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?
A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases
B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases
C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases
C X
31..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
C X
32.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is
A.35 hours
B.32 hours
C.30 hours
A X
33.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include
A.high environmental noise levels
B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort
C.the receiver's expectancy
A X
34.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
B.An alternate airport is required.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
B X
35..What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
C X
36.．In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as
A.somatogravic illusion.
B.ground lighting illusion.
C.autokinesis.
C X
37.. What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds?
A.100 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.750 feet.
B X
38. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A.1922Z.
B.1952Z.
C.0022Z.
C X
39.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
B X
40.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one?
A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence
B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time
C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas
B X
41.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow?
A.supersonic mach number
B.transonic mach number
C.critical mach number
C X
42.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction?
A. At the Poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).
C. At the Equator.
A X
43. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.Four
B.Three
C.Two
A X
44.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.14 minutes.
B.16 minutes.
C.17 minutes.
C X
45. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
A.1945Z.
B.2015Z.
C.0045Z.
C X
46.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
47.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.
A.the change of sun radiation
B.the property change of the underlying cushion
C.the movement of the weather system
B X
48.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
A.9and6
B.9 only
C.6 only
A X
49.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
50. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of
A.127.6MHz.
B.127.6KHz.
C.114.7MHz.
A X
51.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou
A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust
B. Strong wind with sand
C. Strong wind with haze
B X
52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
C X
53.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report?
A. passengers on board
B. ordering galley supplies
C. when an approach has been missed.
C X
54. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above
A. FL200
B. FL240
C. FL250
C X
55.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
56..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B X
57.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
58.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be
A.2Gs.
B.3Gs.
C.9Gs
B X
59.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
60.．Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and
A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
61.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
B X
62.. What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach?
A.22,836 pounds.
B.22,420 pounds.
C.22,556 pounds.
B X
63.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID?
A.690 feet/minute.
B.644 feet/minute.
C.600 feet/minute.
B X
64.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.1,244 feet.
C.900 feet.
B X
65.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision?
A.don't read small print within one hour of flying.
B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.
C.avoid using contact lenses
B X
66.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C X
67..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC?
A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.
C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.
B X
68.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A.ARINC
B.Any FSS
C.Appropriate dispatch office
C X
69..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
70.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. A stable layer of air.
B. An unstable layer of air.
C. Air mass thunderstorms.
A X
71..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.
A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog
B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds
C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds
B X
72.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as
A. stratus or nimbostratus
B. altostratus or stratocumulus
C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus
A X
73.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
74.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
75. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
76.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route
B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo"
C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather
A X
77. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates
A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower
B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway
C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.
B X
78.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.
B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.
C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
C X
79. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200.
C. FL 250.
C X
80.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when
A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight
B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.
C X
81.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A.V2.
B.VEF.
C.V1.
C X
82.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.
B. Original dispatch release.
C. Certificate holder's manual.
C X
83.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
84.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products:
A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS.
B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS.
C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions.
A X
85. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as
A. no aircraft are allowed to land.
B. clear to land with caution.
C. runway is closed or unsafe runway.
C X
86.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?
A.Increase speed.
B.Maintain speed.
C.Decrease speed.
C X
87. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.
B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).
C X
88.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office
A.25 days ago.
B.15 days ago.
C.7 days ago.
B X
89.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ?
A. Slats
B. Elevator
C. Dorsal fin
B X
90.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur?
A.Below.75 Mach.
B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach.
C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach.
A X
91.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
92.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
C.Limiting torque.
B X
93. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.
C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
A X
94.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are
A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
B X
95.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW
A.9,926 pounds.
B.9,680 pounds.
C.9,504 pounds.
C X
96.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as
A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light.
B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.
C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision.
B X
97.. What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2,224 pounds.
B.1,987 pounds.
C.1,454 pounds.
A X
98.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
99.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
A.Some direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
B X
100.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong.
A X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75
A.5 hours 15 minutes.
B.5 hours 40 minutes.
C.5 hours 55 minutes.
B X
2. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated
A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.
C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
A X
3.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at
A.The point cleared by ATC.
B.D38 to HUAIROU.
C.HUAILAI.
C X
4.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short:
A.Of an intersecting taxiway only.
B.Of some designated point on the runway.
C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.
B X
5.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine?
A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.
B.As altitude increases, thrust increases.
C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
6.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
7..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
8.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?
A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
A X
9.What is the purpose of a servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
B X
10.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.
B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation
C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.
A X
11. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights
B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone
C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone
B X
12. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?
A.4
B.15
C.17
C X
13. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment?
A.1360 feet.
B.3940 feet.
C.3842 feet.
C X
14.What is the purpose of a control tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
A X
15.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is
A.3,250m.
B.3,050m.
C.2,950m.
A X
16.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude?
A.Macho
B.Invulnerability:
C.Impulsivity:
C X
17.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
18.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
B.An alternate airport is required.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
B X
19. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B.required to have a second-class medical certificate.
C.not required to have a medical certificate.
C X
20.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
21.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ
B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ
C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ.
B X
22.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least
A.3000m.
B.3,600m.
C.2,800m.
B X
23.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers
A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining
B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end
C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end
A X
24.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B X
25.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A.VOR/DME FIX
B.Surveillance radar
C.Compass locator
C X
26.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.
A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds
B. altocumulus clouds
C. false cirrus clouds
A X
27.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A.Increase speed for a headwind.
B.Increase speed for a tailwind.
C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.
A X
28.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
C X
29. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
B X
30.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb
A.10 minutes.
B.9 minutes.
C.8 minutes.
A X
31.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,
A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.
B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.
C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .
A X
32.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
A.All turbine powered airplanes
B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only
A X
33.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh?
A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.
B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.
C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air.
B X
34.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
35.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?
A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude
B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
A X
36.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia
A.smoking and alcohol
B.fatigue
C.both A and B
C X
37. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
38.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request?
A. expected holding speed
B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.
C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
A X
39.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
C X
40.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A.8 hours.
B.12 hours.
C.24 hours.
A X
41.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.
B X
42.. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is
A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h
B. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots
C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h
B X
43.Identify REIL.
A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
C X
44. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. reduce speed to the assigned speed.
B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
C X
45.．Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it?
A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.
B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training
C.A and B
C X
46. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.500 feet
B.1,000feet
C.1,500 feet
B X
47.What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.
B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.
C X
48.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is
A.1,360 feet.
B.1,245 feet.
C.1,262 feet.
C X
49.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about
A.40 seconds
B.3 minutes
C.1 minute and 15 seconds
C X
50.One purpose of high-lift devices is to
A.- increase the load factor.
B.delay stall.
C.increase airspeed.
B X
51.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃
B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃
C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃
C X
52. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are?
A. to achieve the desired separation.
B. to maintain enough separation;
C. both a and b
C X
53.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport?
A.124.35MHz.
B.127.85MHz.
C.118.8MHz.
C X
54.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL?
A.308KHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.240KHz.
B X
55.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds?
A.800 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.1,300 feet.
A X
56.. How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.2,100 feet.
B.2,650 feet.
C.3,000 feet.
C X
57.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will
A.change
B.not change
C.may change or may not change
A X
58.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
59.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A X
60.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route
B.In VFR conditions
C.In day VFR conditions
C X
61. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.1,500 feet
C.2,000 feet
A X
62.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:
A.Must be adhered to.
B.Does not preclude rejected landing.
C.Precludes a rejected landing.
B X
63. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.
C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
A X
64.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan?
A.850.
B.K0850.
C.0850K.
B X
65.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps?
A.Increase the camber of the wing.
B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
A X
66.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and
A.slowed down to the final approach IAS.
B.received an ATC clearance.
C.climbed to the appropriate altitude.
B X
67.．Night vision is enhanced by
A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view
B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view.
C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated
A X
68.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
69.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
70.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
71.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.
B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red.
C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.
A X
72.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one?
A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence
B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time
C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas
B X
73..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.
B. Headwind or tailwind increase
C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
C X
74. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.2,000 feet
B.3,000 feet
C.3,500 feet.
B X
75.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
76.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?
A.Sluggish in aileron control.
B.Sluggish in rudder control
C.Unstable about the lateral axis
C X
77.. What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots?
A.13,700 pounds.
B.18,600 pounds.
C.22,000 pounds.
B X
78.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.
B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
C X
79.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
B X
80. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B X
81.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
B X
82. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet.
B X
83.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.VOR
B.VOR and ILS
C.VOR and DME
A X
84. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
C X
85.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
86.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
C X
87.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME?
A.HUR.
B.PEK.
C.IDK.
A X
88.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?
A.Lower than pressure altitude.
B.Higher than pressure altitude.
C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.
B X
89. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A.11
B.5 and 13
C.7and 11
B X
90. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
91. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
B.A runway Boundary Sign
C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
C X
92.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
B X
93.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates
A. the absence of clouds in the area
B. an area of no convective turbulence
C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected
C X
94.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A.prevent flow separation.
B.decrease rate of sink.
C.increase profile drag.
A X
95. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
C X
96.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the
A.retina
B.cornea
C.iris
A X
97.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will
A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.
B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor
C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor
B X
98.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
99. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C X
100. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report
A. within 10 days after the deviation.
B. after returning home.
C. after the flight is completed.
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?
A. 0000 through 1000.
B. 7200 and 7500 series.
C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.
C X
2. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
3.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of
A.requiring a pilot to read back.
B.keeping flight status.
C.requiring a pilot to take specific action.
C X
4.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
5.What is the purpose of a control tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
A X
6.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
7.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
8.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.
B.-positive longitudinal static stability.
C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A X
9.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
C X
10.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a too shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.a participatory leader
A X
11.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
12.. What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds?
A.1,200 feet.
B.850 feet.
C.400 feet.
C X
13.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
C X
14.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere?
A.excessive use of carburetor heat
B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze
C.a leak in the engine exhaust system
C X
15..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
16.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
B X
17..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail
B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms
C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail
C X
18.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing
A X
19.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
20.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
21. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A.1922Z.
B.1952Z.
C.0022Z.
C X
22..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
A X
23. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.
C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
A X
24. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is
A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport.
B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed.
C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.
A X
25.. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
A.Takeoff decision speed.
B.Takeoff safety speed.
C.Minimum takeoff speed.
B X
26. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
B X
27.. A plane, MH 60°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
28.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than
A.10 hours
B.14 hours
C.16 hours
A X
29.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B.Low gross weight.
C.High density altitude.
A X
30.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC,
A.75.4 percent.
B.74.2 percent.
C.72.9 percent.
A X
31.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.
A.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters.
B.five meters.
C.infinity.
A X
32. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC, when there is almost no the braking action?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "nil"
C X
33.．What cause hypoxia?
A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.
C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
C X
34.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.
C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
C X
35. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "good"
C. braking action is "100%"
B X
36.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
37.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A. Katabatic.
B. Advection.
C. Adiabatic.
C X
38. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
39.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction?
A.To require a pilot to take a specific action.
B.To state some important information.
C.To warn the pilot.
A X
40. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for
A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
41. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?
A.1 month.
B.3 months.
C.12 months.
B X
42.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training?
A.N.
B.S.
C.G.
C X
43.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs?
A.CCAFC.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
44.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is
A.998 hPa
B.1099.8 hPa
C.999.8 hPa
A X
45.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
46.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace?
A.Air Traffic Controller.
B.Pilot-in-command.
C.Dispatcher.
A X
47.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A.Clearway.
B.Stop way.
C.Obstruction clearance plane.
A X
48.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers?
A.Hourly.
B.One hour and a half a time.
C.30 minutes a time.
A X
49.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
50..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
A X
51.．In flight, a good leader should
A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance
B.involve the team in most decision making processes
C.A and B
C X
52.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
53. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has
A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.
B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.
C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
C X
54.The "runway hold position" sign denotes
A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway
B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway
C.Intersecting runways
C X
55.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.308 feet.
B.193 feet.
C.200 feet.
B X
56.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.
A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility
B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog
C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence.
B X
57.. What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots?
A.13,700 pounds.
B.18,600 pounds.
C.22,000 pounds.
B X
58.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
59.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?
A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B. Advise ATC immediately.
C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B X
60.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at
A.The point cleared by ATC.
B.D38 to HUAIROU.
C.HUAILAI.
C X
61. Group II aircraft are
A.Propeller driven aircraft
B.Turbojet aircraft
C.3/4 engine aircraft
B X
62.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A.prevent flow separation.
B.decrease rate of sink.
C.increase profile drag.
A X
63. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to
A.any required pilot crewmember.
B.any flight crewmember.
C.flight engineer or navigator.
C X
64. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. When cleared for an IFR approach
B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.
C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis.
C X
65.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
B.An alternate airport is required.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
B X
66.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing
A. Wind shear warning
B. Aerodrome warning
C. Hazardous weather warning
A X
67.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds?
A.800 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.1,300 feet.
A X
68..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
69.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
70.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is
A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred
B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change
C.Do what we must to do in the situation
A X
71.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about
A.40 seconds
B.3 minutes
C.1 minute and 15 seconds
C X
72.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace?
A.FL 6,000m.
B.FL 6,300m.
C.The first holding pattern altitude.
B X
73.. What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON
A.16,400 feet.
B.19,600 feet.
C.18,700 feet.
A X
74.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
A.Maximum range and distance glide.
B.Best angle of climb.
C.Maximum endurance.
A X
75.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
76. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
77.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
78.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148?
A.1,320 feet/minute.
B.1,400 feet/minute.
C.1,364 feet/minute.
C X
79.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. Strong wind with shower
B. Snow and rain
C. Strong west wind and blowing snow
C X
80.What does the pulsating VASI consist of?
A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.
B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady.
C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.
C X
81.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude?
A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor.
B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor.
C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.
C X
82..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on .
A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level
B.the standard air pressure of the local station
C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level
A X
83..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
84.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?
A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa.
B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.
C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
B X
85.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
86.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
87.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
88.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC
A.77.5 percent.
B.75.3 percent.
C.79.4 percent.
B X
89.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.M9000.
B.S9000.
C.M0900.
C X
90.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o
A.FL118.
B.FL128.
C.FL138.
A X
91.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
A X
92.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A.A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B.The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
A X
93.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C X
94.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
95.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?
A. Temperature inversion.
B. Wind stronger than 15 konts.
C. Surface radiation.
B X
96.. What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used?
A.138 knots and 3,900 feet.
B.153 knots and 2,900 feet.
C.183 knots and 2,900 feet.
C X
97.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A. At the poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).
C. At the equator.
C X
98.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions,
A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.
B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.
C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .
A X
99.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
100.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?
A.4
B.15
C.17
C X
2.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C X
3.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.80,850 pounds.
B.85,700 pounds.
C.77,600 pounds.
A X
4.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of
A.40 kilometers.
B.50 kilometers.
C.46 kilometers.
B X
5..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
A X
6.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.
B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.
B X
7.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability
B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
A X
8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
C X
9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of
A.121.7MHz.
B.121.9MHz.
C.121.7KHz.
B X
10.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.13 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.16 minutes.
B X
11. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C X
12. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A.The aircraft dispatcher.
B.Air route traffic control center.
C.Director of operations.
A X
13.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is
A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m
B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m
C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m
B X
14.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
15. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are
A.supplemental and commercial.
B.supplemental and domestic.
C.flag and commercial.
A X
16.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?
A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension.
B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.
C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.
B X
17.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
C X
18.As the CG is moved forward, the stability
A.Improves
B.Decrease
C.dose not change
A X
19.. What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2,224 pounds.
B.1,987 pounds.
C.1,454 pounds.
A X
20.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A X
21.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
B.varies with the rate of turn.
C.is constant
C X
22. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Pilot in command.
C.Director of operations or flight follower.
B X
23.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
A. Headwind or tailwind decrease
B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind
C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
B X
24.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC
A.77.5 percent.
B.75.3 percent.
C.79.4 percent.
B X
25.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
26.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to?
A.FL158.
B.FL148.
C.FL168.
B X
27.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
28.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.
C X
29.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
30.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
B X
31.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with
A.F1020.
B.S1020.
C.L1020.
B X
32.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
B X
33.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be
A.2Gs.
B.3Gs.
C.9Gs
B X
34.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is
A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.
B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.
C.not considered to be part of a rest period.
C X
35.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are .
A.nimbostratus
B.cumulonimbus
C.altostratus.
B X
36. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.2,000 feet
B.2,500 feet
C.3,000 feet
C X
37.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when
A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight
B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.
C X
38.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
39.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training?
A.N.
B.S.
C.G.
C X
40. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
41. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
42.. What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots?
A.9,500 pounds.
B.10,400 pounds.
C.11,300 pounds.
B X
43.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.
C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
B X
44.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
45.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers
A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining
B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end
C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end
A X
46.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is
A. outward, downward and clockwise
B. outward, upward and clockwise
C. inward, upward and counterclockwise
C X
47.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
48.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?
A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.
B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.
C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
B X
49.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A. freezing rain
B. clear air turbulence
C. embedded thunderstorms
C X
50.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.95 knots.
C.100 knots.
B X
51.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
52.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A.Compressor discharge.
B.Fuel spray nozzles.
C.Turbine inlet.
C X
53.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace?
A.Approach Control Regulation.
B.Visual Flight Regulation.
C.Instrument Control Regulation.
C X
54. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
A.6 calendar months.
B.12 calendar months.
C.24 calendar months.
C X
55. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that
A. filling out logs
B. making passenger announcements
C. both a and b
C X
56. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.
C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
C X
57. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
58.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd
A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence
B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence
C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing
B X
59. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?
A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
C X
60. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A.Four
B.Three
C.Two
A X
61. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A. Person who found the emergency.
B. Person who heard the emergency.
C. Pilot in command.
C X
62..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm?
A.It moves with the weather system.
B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings
C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land
B X
63.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
64.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
A.All turbine powered airplanes
B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only
A X
65. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above
A. FL200
B. FL240
C. FL250
C X
66.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from
A.the eyes
B.the inner
C.the proprioceptive system
A X
67.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
C X
68.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?
A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
B.A severe moment or "tuck under"
C.-Severe porpoising
B X
69.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
70.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
A X
71.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
A X
72.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?
A.Porpoise.
B.Wingover.
C.Dutch roll
C X
73.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A cold front and a upper jet
B. A worm front and a upper jet
C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence
A X
74.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.45 seconds
C.1 minute
B X
75.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
76.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is
A.1Gs.
B.2Gs.
C.1.4Gs
B X
77.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts:
A.Must be adhered to.
B.Does not preclude rejected landing.
C.Precludes a rejected landing.
B X
78.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
79.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport?
A.124.35MHz.
B.127.85MHz.
C.118.8MHz.
C X
81..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing?
A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.
B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.
C. when exit the runway.
B X
82.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of
A.requiring a pilot to read back.
B.keeping flight status.
C.requiring a pilot to take specific action.
C X
83.．An authoritative leader
A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
B X
84.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.
B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary
C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C X
85. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
A X
86.．Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it?
A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.
B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training
C.A and B
C X
87.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing
B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.
C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.
A X
88.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
89.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur?
A.Below.75 Mach.
B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach.
C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach.
A X
90.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds?
A. Temperature inversion.
B. Wind stronger than 15 konts.
C. Surface radiation.
B X
91.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement
A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis.
B.Coriolis illusion.
C.the leans.
B X
92.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours.
A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
A X
93.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase?
A. The appearance of disordered low clouds
B. The appearance of anvil clouds top
C. It begins to rain on the ground
C X
94.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should
A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured .
B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory ,
C. Select another type of navigation aid.
C X
95.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
96.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
97.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control?
A.Supercharger gear ratio.
B.Exhaust gas discharge.
C.The desired manifold pressure.
C X
98.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou
A. Rain
B. Light fog
C. Fog
C X
99.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb
A.15 minutes.
B.14 minutes.
C.13 minutes.
C X
100.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou
A. Rain
B. Light fog
C. Fog
C X
2.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is
A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.
B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.
C.not considered to be part of a rest period.
C X
3.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL?
A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.
C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR.
C X
4.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
5.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing?
A. ZSSS
B. ZUUU
C. ZHHH
B X
6.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A?
A.GUBEIKOU NDB.
B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.
C.The descent moment on the course of 227o.
A X
7.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs?
A.CCAFC.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
8.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B X
9.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to
A.600m AGL.
B.Final approach fix.
C.The first holding pattern level.
C X
10.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃
B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃
C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃
A X
11.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet
A. Rain shower and thunderstorm
B. Rain and fog
C. Strong wind and thunderstorm
A X
12.Identify REIL.
A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
C X
13.. Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway?
A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight.
B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight.
A X
14.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route
B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo"
C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather
A X
15.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A. Katabatic.
B. Advection.
C. Adiabatic.
C X
16.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
17.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A.VOR
B.VOR and ILS
C.VOR and DME
A X
18.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of
A.requiring a pilot to read back.
B.keeping flight status.
C.requiring a pilot to take specific action.
C X
19. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?
A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft
B.Airborne radar
C.DME
C X
20.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
21.. Which points should be report to ATC without request?
A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.
B. when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C X
22.. What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,200 feet.
C.2,750 feet.
A X
23.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.
B X
24.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A.pitching up.
B.pitching down.
C.leveling off.
A X
25.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered?
A.Increase speed.
B.Maintain speed.
C.Decrease speed.
A X
26.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
B X
27.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office
A.25 days ago.
B.15 days ago.
C.7 days ago.
B X
28.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
29.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
C X
30.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines?
A.High RPM and low MAP.
B.Low RPM and high MAP.
C.High RPM and high MAP.
B X
31.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
C X
32.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.FL 10,100 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
B X
33.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace?
A.To protect military activities only.
B.To protect science tests only.
C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.
C X
34.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
35..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind?
A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
C X
36.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
37.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific
A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
38.. What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70
A.35,000 pounds.
B.32,600 pounds.
C.30,200 pounds.
B X
39. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations?
A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
C.If required by the airplane's type certificate.
C X
40.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?
A.When wing lift has been reduced.
B.At high ground speeds.
C.When the wheels are locked and skidding.
A X
41.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
A.Seven
B.Six
C.Five
A X
42.. What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps?
A.123 knots and 3,050 feet.
B.138 knots and 3,050 feet.
C.153 knots and 2,050 feet.
B X
43. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A.11
B.5 and 13
C.7and 11
B X
44. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200.
C. FL 250.
C X
45.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by
A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement
B. A sovereign country or government unit
C. The FAA Administrator only
B X
46. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is
A.1945Z.
B.1915Z.
C.1845Z.
B X
47.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.
B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.
C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
B X
48..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm?
A.It moves with the weather system.
B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings
C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land
B X
49.. What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.30 minutes.
B.45 minutes.
C.29 minutes.
B X
50.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements,
A.DICIDE
B.DECIDE
C.DECIED
B X
51.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence
A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.
B. An off-airway route to the point of departure.
C. The route filed in the flight plan.
C X
52.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
53.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
A.12hours
B.13 hours
C.14 hours
C X
54.. What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds?
A.136 knots.
B.132 knots.
C.139 knots.
A X
55.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be?
A.a participatory leader
B.an authoritative leader
C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory.
C X
56.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?
A.They are both the same 31,000feet.
B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet.
C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
B X
57.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____.
A.right crosswind
B.tailwind
C. left crosswind
C X
58.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A. Expansion of air as rises.
B. Movement of air over a colder surface.
C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
A X
59.. Radiation fog usually appears in .
A. spring and summer.
B. winter and autumn.
C. summer and autumn.
B X
60.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than
A.10 hours
B.14 hours
C.16 hours
A X
61. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for
A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
62..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
B X
63.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM?
A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.
B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.
C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.
B X
64.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the
A.retina
B.cornea
C.iris
A X
65.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft?
A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
B.A severe moment or "tuck under"
C.-Severe porpoising
B X
66.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
67.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity.
C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.
C X
68. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond?
A.4
B.12
C.11
C X
69. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.
C.120 days after issue or renewal.
A X
70.. What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots?
A.9,500 pounds.
B.10,400 pounds.
C.11,300 pounds.
B X
71.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet.
B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet.
C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet.
A X
72.. What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5?
A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM.
B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM.
C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM.
A X
73.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will .
A. descend 2℃
B.descend 3℃
C. descend 4℃
A X
74.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.
A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B. decreases pressure gradient force.
C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
A X
75.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
76.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process?
A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.
B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.
C.A and B
C X
77.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines
A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes
B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing
C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
A X
78. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight.
A X
79. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?
A.1
B.8
C.11
A X
80.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?
A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red.
B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red.
C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red.
A X
81. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding
A.6 calendar months.
B.12 calendar months.
C.24 calendar months.
A X
82.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.
B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation
C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.
A X
83.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?
A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.
C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
B X
84.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to
A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside
B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument
C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power
B X
85. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A X
86.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
87. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
A.1945Z.
B.2015Z.
C.0045Z.
C X
88.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.An alternate airport is required.
B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
A X
89.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Low cloud and perhaps icing
B. Strong wind with bad visibility
C. Snow shower
A X
90.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
C X
91.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport,
A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current
B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale
C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current
A X
92. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be
A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
A X
93. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A.6 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.10 hours.
B X
94.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.Some passengers may be carried.
A X
95.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.
A.the change of sun radiation
B.the property change of the underlying cushion
C.the movement of the weather system
B X
96..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A. nimbostratus.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Cirrocumulus.
B X
97.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
98..What is a feature of supercooled water?
A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.
B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.
C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.
B X
99.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability
A.Motion about the longitudinal.
B.Motion about the lateral axis.
C.Motion about the vertical axis.
B X
100.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.
B.varies with the rate of turn.
C.is constant
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Low-level wind share
B. Microburst
C. Turbulence
A X
2.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____.
A.right crosswind
B.tailwind
C. left crosswind
C X
3. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
C X
4.. What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds?
A.100 feet.
B.300 feet.
C.750 feet.
B X
5.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
6.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than
A.80hours
B.90 hours
C.100hours
B X
7. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. increase speed to the assigned speed.
B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.
C X
8. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.
C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
C X
9. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that
A. filling out logs
B. making passenger announcements
C. both a and b
C X
10.. What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10
A.732 pounds.
B.1,023 pounds.
C.1,440 pounds.
A X
11.. Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds?
A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.
B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers.
C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers.
B X
12.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered?
A.Increase speed.
B.Maintain speed.
C.Decrease speed.
A X
13.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path?
A.5times groundspeed in knots.
B. 8times groundspeed in knots.
C.10 times groundspeed in knots.
A X
14.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be
A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind
B.clear, high wind, good visibility
C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility
A X
15.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A. Direct tailwind.
B. Light quartering tailwind.
C. Light quartering headwind.
B X
16. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
B X
17.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?
A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack
B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack
B X
18.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable?
A. The parcel of air resists convection.
B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill.
C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
A X
19. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
A.Aircraft dispatcher.
B.Director of operations or flight follower.
C.Pilot in command.
C X
20.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?
A.585feet
B.1.300feet
C.Sea level
C X
21. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
A.Not more than 1 hour.
B.Not more than 2 hours.
C.More than 6 hours.
A X
22. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A.500 feet
B.1,000feet
C.1,500 feet
B X
23.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing
B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.
C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.
A X
24.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and
A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact
B.Request a new ATC clearance
C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved
C X
25.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.8 feet.
B.12 feet.
C.10 feet.
C X
26.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is
A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.
B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.
C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.
C X
27.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on
A.113.6KHz.
B.113.6MHz.
C.114.7MHz.
B X
28.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least
A.3000m.
B.3,600m.
C.2,800m.
B X
29. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the
A. ATC and dispatcher.
B. nearest CAAC district office.
C. operations manager (or director of operations).
A X
30.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation?
A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear.
B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.
B X
31. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
32.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will
A.change
B.not change
C.may change or may not change
A X
33.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of
A.122.20MHz.
B.8897KHz.
C.3016KHz.
C X
34.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader
A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
A X
35.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.
A.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
36.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃
B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃
C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃
A X
37. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600
B.DH65m，RVR600
C.DH65m，RVR550
B X
38. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
A.Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B.Copy of the flight plan.
C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.
B X
39.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport
A.during the entire flight.
B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
C.when the flight arrives.
C X
40..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
A X
41.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have
A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background
B.White inscriptions on a black background
C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background
C X
42.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
43.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
44.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
B X
45.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A.Limiting compressor speed.
B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
C.Limiting torque.
B X
46.. How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.13 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.16 minutes.
B X
47.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?
A.632 feet per minute.
B.843 feet per minute.
C.737 feet per minute.
C X
48.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?
A.Red
B.Amber
C.Green.
B X
49.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
C X
50.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.
B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.
B X
51.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed?
A. By wind or the movement of air.
B. By convective mixing in cool night air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
A X
52.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
53..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B X
54.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
A.9and6
B.9 only
C.6 only
A X
55.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
56.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement
A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis.
B.Coriolis illusion.
C.the leans.
B X
57.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？
A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts.
B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.
B X
58.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
59. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
A.8
B.1
C.2
B X
60.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to
A.FL138.
B.FL128.
C.FL158.
C X
61.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
C X
62. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A. Person who found the emergency.
B. Person who heard the emergency.
C. Pilot in command.
C X
63.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is
A.12hours
B.10hours
C.8hours
B X
64. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when
A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign
B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line
C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.
C X
65.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than
A.7 hours.
B.8 hours.
C.6 hours.
C X
66.．In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as
A.somatogravic illusion.
B.ground lighting illusion.
C.autokinesis.
C X
67.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed
A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure
B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa.
C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.
B X
68.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
69.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.
B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.
C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
C X
70.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
C X
71.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first?
A.inward and aft
B.inward and forward
C.outward and forward
B X
72.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)
A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline
B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone
C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone
A X
73.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is
A.Plus or minus 6
B.Plus 6 or minus 4
C.Plus or minus4?
A X
74.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to
A.0600z.
B.0630z.
C.0700z.
B X
75.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
A X
76. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.
B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.
B X
77. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots)
A.2
B.3
C.4
B X
78..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A X
79.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is
A.1,360 feet.
B.1,245 feet.
C.1,262 feet.
C X
80.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
81..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail
B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms
C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail
C X
82.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
B X
83.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to
A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket
B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.
C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.
C X
84.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
B X
85.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office
A.25 days ago.
B.15 days ago.
C.7 days ago.
B X
86.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B X
87.. What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.30 minutes.
B.45 minutes.
C.29 minutes.
B X
88.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL?
A.110.3MHz.
B.114.7MHz.
C.111.7MHz.
C X
89.. How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight?
A.650 feet.
B.1,300 feet.
C.1,050 feet.
C X
90.. What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds?
A.400 feet.
B.950 feet.
C.1,350 feet.
A X
91.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
92.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means
A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation
B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
B X
93.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A. Expansion of air as rises.
B. Movement of air over a colder surface.
C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
A X
94. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
95.. What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots?
A.17,000 pounds.
B.20,800 pounds.
C.22,300 pounds.
B X
96.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A. At the poles.
B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).
C. At the equator.
C X
97. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is
A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.
C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
B X
98.. What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds?
A.127 knots.
B.149 knots.
C.156 knots.
C X
99. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
100.. What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
A.124 knots.
B.137 knots.
C.130 knots.
C X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes.
A. from headwind to tailwind.
B. from left crosswind to right crosswind.
C. from right crosswind to left crosswind
C X
2. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. reduce speed to the assigned speed.
B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
C X
3.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o
A.FL118.
B.FL128.
C.FL138.
A X
4..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
5.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?
A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.
C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.
C X
6.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.
B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.
C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m.
B X
7.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter
A.N.
B.M.
C.X.
A X
8.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.2.01 EPR.
B.2.03 EPR.
C.2.04 EPR.
B X
9..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A. occasional light chop.
B. Moderate chop.
C. Intermittent light turbulence.
A X
10.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
11. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.
C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
C X
12.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.
B.-positive longitudinal static stability.
C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A X
13.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that
A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance
B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger
C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents
B X
14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?
A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release.
B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
C X
15.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
A X
16.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by
A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement
B. A sovereign country or government unit
C. The FAA Administrator only
B X
17.When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
A X
18.. What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,000 feet.
C.2,350 feet.
B X
19.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
20. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
A.8
B.1
C.2
B X
21.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
22.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems
A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end
B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end
C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway
B X
23.. An alternate airport for departure is required
A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.
C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.
A X
24.As the CG is moved forward, the stability
A.Improves
B.Decrease
C.dose not change
A X
25.. Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
26. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.
C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
A X
27.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to
A.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high
B.after a period of intense concentration
C.during normal operation
C X
28.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by
A. dizziness
B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot
C.vomiting
B X
29.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation?
A.Higher than at low temperature.
B.Lower than at low temperature.
C.The same as at low temperature.
A X
30.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport,
A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current
B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale
C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current
A X
31.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW)
A. 300 metres
B. 900 metres
C. 3000 metres
A X
32.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of
A.turbine inlet temperature.
B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
C.propeller thrust only.
B X
33. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.1,500 feet
C.1,800 feet.
A X
34.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
35. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?
A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.
B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
C X
36.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be
A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level
B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs
C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake
A X
37.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing.
C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
A X
38.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
39..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail
B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms
C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail
C X
40.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing
A. Wind shear warning
B. Aerodrome warning
C. Hazardous weather warning
A X
41.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
A. flying in any clouds.
B. Flying in rain.
C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.
C X
42.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing
A X
43.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means
A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation
B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
B X
44.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
45.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design?
A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.
B X
46.. What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots?
A.17,000 pounds.
B.20,800 pounds.
C.22,300 pounds.
B X
47.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM?
A.ATMB NOTAMs office.
B.Area flight information center.
C.Airport flight information office.
C X
48.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as
A.a shallow authority gradient
B.a steep authority gradient
C.strong leadership
B X
49.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.
B X
50.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as
A. stratus or nimbostratus
B. altostratus or stratocumulus
C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus
A X
51.. How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds?
A.100 feet.
B.400 feet.
C.850 feet.
C X
52.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
A X
53.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by
A. high personal attention and high task orientation
B.medium personal attention and high task orientation
C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation
A X
54. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
C X
55. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
C X
56.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A. 40 knots
B. 80 knots
C. 90 knots
B X
57.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
A.Some direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
B X
58.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard?
A.Five
B.Four
C.Two
A X
59.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
C X
60.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter
A.Y.
B.I.
C.Z.
A X
61.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?
A.Green yellow and white beacon light
B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
C X
62. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A.certificate holder's operations specifications.
B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
A X
63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed?
A.V2.
B.V1.
C.VLOF.
B X
64.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours
B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty
C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours
B X
65.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
B X
66.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
B X
67.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A.Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B.Transient "backfire" stall.
C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C X
68.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on
A.113.6KHz.
B.113.6MHz.
C.114.7MHz.
B X
69.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is
A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.
B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.
C.not considered to be part of a rest period.
C X
70..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
A. rotor cloud.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Low stratus.
B X
71.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce .
A. layer clouds
B. smooth airflow and advection fog
C. warm front clouds
B X
72.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited?
A. 3,000 meters.
B. 3,600 meters.
C. 6,000 meters.
A X
73. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.
A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m.
B.MDH120m,VIS1600m.
C.MDH100m,VIS1600m.
B X
74.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
75. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC?
A.D0.3 PEK.
B.Above PEK VOR.
C.D0.2 PEK.
B X
76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
B X
77.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
A.As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B.As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
C X
78.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
C X
79. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond?
A.1
B.8
C.11
A X
80.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft?
A.Immediately after ground contact.
B.Immediately prior to touchdown.
C.After applying maximum wheel braking.
A X
81.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to
A.0600z.
B.0630z.
C.0700z.
B X
82.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart.
B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart.
C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m.
B X
83.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG)
A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds
B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds
C. Bad visibility and strong wind
B X
84.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
85.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.12,097 feet.
B.12,093 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
A X
86. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
87.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
88. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is
A.upgrade training.
B.transition training.
C.initial training.
C X
89.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the
A.retina
B.cornea
C.iris
A X
90.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator.
C.Outer compass locator.
C X
91.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A. Convection currents at the surface.
B. Cold temperatures.
C. Poor visibility.
C X
92.．The blind spot is
A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.
B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina
C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.
B X
93.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.
B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
B X
94.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?
A.Lower than pressure altitude.
B.Higher than pressure altitude.
C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.
B X
95.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?
A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.
A X
96.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?
A.The same angle of attack.
B.A lower angle of attack.
C.A higher angle of attack.
B X
97.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at
A.The point cleared by ATC.
B.D38 to HUAIROU.
C.HUAILAI.
C X
98.. What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
A.124 knots.
B.137 knots.
C.130 knots.
C X
99.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates
A. the absence of clouds in the area
B. an area of no convective turbulence
C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected
C X
100..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B X
成绩合计

成绩单
题目正文标准答案用户选项选项说明
1.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training?
A.N.
B.S.
C.G.
C X
2.. What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1?
A.24 minutes, 118 NAM.
B.26 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.25 minutes, 118 NAM.
B X
3.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs?
A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.
B.ATMB NOTAMs office.
C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center.
C X
4.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol
A.V2min .
B.V1.
C.VLOF.
B X
5.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions
A X
6.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.
B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
C.An increase in dynamic stability.
A X
7.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A.every 7 consecutive days
B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month
C.each calendar week
B X
8.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?
A.When wing lift has been reduced.
B.At high ground speeds.
C.When the wheels are locked and skidding.
A X
9. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
C X
10. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C X
11.. What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway?
A.124,000 pounds.
B.137,000 pounds.
C.108,000 pounds.
B X
12.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
B X
13.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan?
A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.
C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.
C X
14. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?
A.1
B.2
C.3
A X
15.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .
A.from east to west
B.from west to east
C.from north to south
A X
16.. What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.2.01 EPR.
B.2.03 EPR.
C.2.04 EPR.
B X
17.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
18.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?
A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).
B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more.
C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.
C X
19.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
20.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach?
A.762 feet.
B.870 feet.
C.755 feet.
A X
21.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes .
A.from left crosswind to right crosswind.
B.from headwind to tailwind.
C.from right crosswind to left crosswind
A X
22. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of
A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign
B.A runway Boundary Sign
C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
C X
23.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
A.VMU.
B.VMD.
C.VFC.
A X
24. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are?
A. to achieve the desired separation.
B. to maintain enough separation;
C. both a and b
C X
25. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "good"
C. braking action is "100%"
B X
26. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel
A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.
B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.
B X
27. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A.The aircraft dispatcher.
B.Air route traffic control center.
C.Director of operations.
A X
28. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?
A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.
B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required
C.For flights at or above FL 180
B X
29.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃
B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃
C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃
A X
30.. How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,000 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
31. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is
A.1945Z.
B.1915Z.
C.1845Z.
B X
32. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A.The second in command only.
B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B X
33. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B X
34. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B X
35.. What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF
A.19,400 feet.
B.20,000 feet.
C.23,800 feet.
B X
36. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. back to the departure airport.
A X
37. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be
A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
A X
38.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
39.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes.
C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.
A X
40.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because
A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells
B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs
C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation
A X
41.. What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots?
A.9,800 pounds.
B.11,200 pounds.
C.17,000 pounds.
B X
42.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and
A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact
B.Request a new ATC clearance
C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved
C X
43.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia?
A.several headache
B.reduced visual field
C.a feeling of euphoria
A X
44.. What is the ETE at .80 Mach?
A.1 hours 02 minutes.
B.1 hours 04 minutes.
C.1 hours 07 minutes.
C X
45.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.
A. 8 to 9 km
B.10 to 12 km
C.15 to 17 km
B X
46.. What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW
A.11,227 pounds.
B.11,503 pounds.
C.11,754 pounds.
A X
47.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
48. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly
A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.
B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C X
49..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A. nimbostratus.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Cirrocumulus.
B X
50.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
51.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of
A.turbine inlet temperature.
B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
C.propeller thrust only.
B X
52.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.
B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.
B X
53.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up?
A.Over open sea.
B.Over domestic only.
C.Over domestic and open sea.
B X
54..What is a feature of supercooled water?
A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.
B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.
C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.
B X
55.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC
A.77.5 percent.
B.75.3 percent.
C.79.4 percent.
B X
56. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet.
B X
57.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
C X
58.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine?
A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.
B.As altitude increases, thrust increases.
C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
59. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
60.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG?
A.10 feet.
B.8 feet.
C.12 feet.
A X
61.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
62. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L?
A.HIALS with PAPI.
B.HIALS.
C.PAPI.
A X
63. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that
A. filling out logs
B. making passenger announcements
C. both a and b
C X
64.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
65. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated
A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.
C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
A X
66.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level
B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway
C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters
C X
67.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?
A.Green yellow and white beacon light
B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
C X
68.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
69.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃
B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃
C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃
C X
70.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to
A.25 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.35 seconds
B X
71.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
72..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
73.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots?
A. 350 knots
B. 330 knots
C. 250 knots
C X
74.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as
A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light.
B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.
C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision.
B X
75.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
76.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.
C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
B X
77. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ?
A.166
B.346
C.354
C X
78.. What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15
A.74,000 pounds.
B.74,180 pounds.
C.73,400 pounds.
A X
79.One purpose of high-lift devices is to
A.- increase the load factor.
B.delay stall.
C.increase airspeed.
B X
80.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG?
A.12,093 feet.
B.12,097 feet.
C.13,123 feet.
C X
81.. What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70
A.5 hours 3 minutes.
B.5 hours 20 minutes.
C.5 hours 55 minutes.
A X
82.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?
A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing
B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.
C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.
A X
83. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.2,000 feet
B.3,000 feet
C.3,500 feet.
B X
84.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
C X
85.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least
A.220m.
B.150m.
C.160m.
A X
86.. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC
A.83.4 percent.
B.86.0 percent.
C.87.4 percent.
C X
87.TCAS I provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic
B X
88.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance?
A.Eustachian tube
B.the cochlea
C.the semicircular canals
C X
89.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20?
A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important.
B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis.
C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency.
B X
90.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
B X
91. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do?
A. reduce speed to the assigned speed.
B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.
C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.
C X
92..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease?
A. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.
A X
93.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A. Katabatic.
B. Advection.
C. Adiabatic.
C X
94.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
95.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is
A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others
B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible
C.does the first thing that comes to mind.
A X
96. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?
A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
C X
97.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?
A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.
B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.
C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.
B X
98.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .
A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor
B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone
C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.
C X
99.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
100.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A.pitching up.
B.pitching down.
C.leveling off.
A X
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