第四章 签派英语 Dispatcher English
**** Hidden Message ***** 第四章签派英语9349 Which of the following normally requires the pilot-in-command to hold a type rating? A〕Any turbojet-powered airplane. B〕Any airplane which has a gross weight of 6,000 pounds or more. C〕Any multiengine airplane which is operated under interstate commerce.
A
9350 Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold type rating? A〕When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. B〕When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than12, 500pounds. C〕When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.
B
9330 What maximum hours a day may an airline transport pilot instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A〕6 hours. B〕8 hours. C〕10 hours.
B 9331 What restriction is imposed regarding flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an
airline transport pilot?
A〕30 hours in any 7-day period.
B〕7 hours in any 1-day period.
C〕36 hours in any 7-day period.
C
9325 Which is a definition of the term "crewmember" ? A〕Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator as signed to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B〕A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft cutting flight time. C〕Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
B
8213 When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A〕one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B〕The flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight
crewmember must be 2qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C〕At least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a
certificate is not required. C 8188 If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
A〕The second in command only.
B〕Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C〕Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
B 8192 An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight
attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?
A〕Four.
B〕Three.
C〕Two.
B 8193 When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137passingers on board, what is the
minimum number of flight attendants required?
A〕Five.
B〕Four.
C〕Three.
B 8201 What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating
capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?
A〕Five.
B〕Four.
C〕Three.
B 8202 What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity
of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
A〕Seven.
B〕Six.
C〕Five.
A 8215 The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on
another airplane of the same group(e.g.,turbojet powered)is
A〕upgrade training.
B〕Transition training.
C〕Initial training.
C 8216 A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g.,B-727-100),may
serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?
A〕Upgrade training.
B〕Recurrent training.
C〕Initial training.
A 8217 The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is： A〕difference training.
B〕Transition training.
C〕Upgrade training. B 8205 A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding
A〕6 calendar months.
B〕12 calendar months.
C〕24 calendar months.
A 8207 A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or
line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
A〕6 calendar months.
B〕12 calendar months.
C〕24 calendar months.
C
8210 What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A〕The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B〕The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C〕The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
A 8208 Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing
recency of experience? A〕At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B〕At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a
landing from that approach.
C〕At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B 8209 What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?
A〕At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.
B〕At least one full stop landing must be made. C〕At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
B 9333 What is the minimum number of instrument approaches required to act as pilot-in-command under IFR
conditions? A〕Six in any approved instrument ground trainer or aircraft within the past 6 months. B〕Six, at least three of which must be in an aircraft, within the past 6 months. C〕Six in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category, within the past 6 months.
A 8230 To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other requirements, A〕within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5hours observing flight deck operations, pous
two additional takeoff and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatching. B〕Within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations,
plus two additional takeoff and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group be/she is to dispatch. C〕Within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations
in each type of airplane, in each group that he/she is to dispatch. B 8219 Afag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight
crewmember, for no more than
A〕8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
B〕10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
C〕12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.
C
8229 If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period,
what action is required? A〕The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours. B〕The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13 hours as 121.465(1) limits the duty period to 10
consecutive hours. C〕The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10
hours of duty. C 8321 An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A〕every 7 consecutive days.
B〕Any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.
C〕Each calendar week.
B
8238 The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A〕12 hours. B〕10 hours. C〕8 hours.
B
9326 Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A〕the specific duties of any required crewmember. B〕Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C〕Exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
B
8290 Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A〕Type of operation(e.g., IFR,VFR),TRIP NUMBER. B〕Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
C〕Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight. A 8292 What information must be contained in, or attached to ,the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A〕Departure airport, Intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B〕Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C〕Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A 8293 What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A〕Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of
operation. B〕Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C〕Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
B
8294 A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A〕minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B〕Trip number and weight and balance data. C〕Weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A 8280 By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane
information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?
A〕The aircraft dispatcher.
B〕Air route traffic control center.
C〕Director of operations.
A 8284 Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all
available weather information?
A〕Company meteorologist.
B〕Aircraft dispatcher.
C〕Director of operations.
B 8232 A domestic air carrier flight bas a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a
redispatch release is required?
A〕Not more than 1 hour.
B〕Not more than 2 hours.
C〕More than 6 hours
A 8260 A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A〕1945Z.
B〕1915Z.
C〕1845Z. B 8259 A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart
without being redispatched is
A〕2005Z.
B〕1905Z.
C〕0005Z.
C 8266 When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may
continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?
A〕1922Z.
B〕1952Z.
C〕0022Z.
C 8267 If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the
latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
A〕1945Z
B〕2015Z
C〕0045Z
C
8286 Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A〕Load manifest (or information from it )and flight release. B〕Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C〕Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it),and flight plan.
C 8288 A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for
at least
A〕3 months.
B〕6 months.
C〕30 days.
A
8296 Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A〕Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B〕Load manifest, flight plan and flight release. C〕Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
C
8268 The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A〕30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
B〕45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.
C〕45minutes at normal Fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B 8276 A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available
alternate.What is the required fuel reserve?
A〕2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B〕2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
C〕30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
B
8270 What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly
A〕30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the
alternate. B〕to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fail consumption. C〕45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C 8274 Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air
carrier airplane? A〕90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B〕45 minutes at holding altitude. C〕30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required,or90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is
less.
C
8225 Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
A〕Keep safety belts fastened and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.
B〕Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.
C〕How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a
smoke
detector. B 8181 A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using
oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above
A〕FL 200
B〕FL 240.
C〕FL250.
C
8153 When may two persons share on approved safety belt in a lounge seat?
A〕When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age.
B〕Only during the en route flight.
C〕During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.
B 8132 When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of these person and the escort? A〕They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. B〕They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft.
C〕They shall board and depart before the other passengers. A 8177 Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and
crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane? A〕All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. B〕Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately
visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment.
C〕Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation. C 8176 Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under Part
CCAR121?
A〕Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.
B〕Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C〕Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
C 8160 Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a
passenger-carrying airplane?
A〕The most forward location in the passenger cabin.
B〕In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit.
C〕The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
C 8161 How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating
capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried? A〕Two; one at the forward, end the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. B〕Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C〕Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the
passenger cabin. A
8162 How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating
capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried? A〕Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B〕Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center in of the passenger cabin. C〕Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
C
8144 The emergency lights on a passenger carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during A〕taxiing, takeoff cruise, and landing. B〕Taxiing, take-off, and landing. C〕Take-off, cruise, and landing.
B 8157 If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when
must this system be armed?
A〕For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
B〕Only for takeoff and landing.
C〕During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
A 8158 If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the
compartment from the passenger cabin must be： A〕unlocked during takeoff and landing. B〕Locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. C〕Latched open during takeoff and landing.
C
8179 An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it A〕has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. B〕has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. C〕weighs more than 12,500 pounds.
B
8235 Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A〕key to the flight deck door. B〕Certificate holder's manual. C〕Flashlight in good working order.
C
8173 How much supplemental oxygen for emgenercy descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplanes carry for each flight crewmember of flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?
A〕A minimum of 2-hour's supply.
B〕Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000feet cabin pressure altitude.
C〕Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50
minutes.
A 8183 Each air carrier flight cdck aorwmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that
can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes
A〕of FL 260.
B〕of FL 250.
C〕Above FL 250.
C
8184 A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within A〕5 seconds. B〕10 seconds. C〕15 seconds.
A
8155 If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL410,the other pilot A〕and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breath oxygen. B〕Shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. C〕Must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.
B 8156 If turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what
is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? A〕FL200. B〕FL300 C〕FL250.
C 8187 What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing
and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?
A〕FL 240.
B〕FL 250
C〕Above FL 250.
B 8147 What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin
pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A〕Each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
B〕30 percent of the passengers.
C〕10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
C 8186 At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?
A〕15,000 feet.
B〕16,000 feet
C〕14,000 feet. B 8180 What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants
who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A〕Tow.
B〕Four.
C〕Three.
A
8165 What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? A〕A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each lifecraft. B〕A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. C〕A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
C
8166 Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each A〕aircraft occupant. B〕B-seat on the aircraft. C〕Passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
A
8169 Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored A〕within easy reach of each passenger. B〕Under each occupant seat. C〕within easy reach of each seated occupant.
C 8171 An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
A〕A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
B〕Survival kit for each passenger.
C〕An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
C 8172 An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
A〕Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
B〕Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
C〕Survival kit for each passenger.
A 8245 If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the
aircraft dispatcher should A〕Take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. B〕Comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. C〕Phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.
A 8198 Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event
of an emergency?
A〕Airplane Flight Manual.
B〕Certificate holder's manual.
C〕 Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
B 8200 The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be
assigned by the
A〕Pilot in command.
B〕Air carrier's chief pilot.
C〕Certificate holder.
C 8204 The air carrier must give instruction on such subject as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to
crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above：
A〕FL180.
B〕FL200.
C〕FL250.
C
8218 How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every A〕6 calendar months. B〕12 calendar months. C〕24 calendar months.
C
8237 If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane,
the pilot in command A〕must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B〕May continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C〕May continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest
suitable
airport. C 8241 What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines
on an air carrier airplane? A〕Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of
time. B〕Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C〕Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.
B 8240 When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a
written report within
A〕10 days after the deviation.
B〕10 days after returning home.
C〕10 days after returning to home base.
C
8246 Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A〕Pilot in command. B〕Dispatcher. C〕Person who declares the emergency.
C
9388 When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? A〕When priority has been given. B〕Anytime an emergency occurs. C〕When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A 8278 If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether
the flight may continue en route?
A〕An approved Minimum Equipment List for the airplane.
B〕Original dispatch release.
C〕Certificate holder's manual.
C
9407 A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate required items which A〕are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B〕May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C〕May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
C 9380 What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR? A〕Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B〕If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no
further
action is necessary.
C〕Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C 9381 What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
A〕Notify ATC immediately.
B〕Squawk 7600.
C〕Monitor the VOR receiver.
A
9386 While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action
should the pilot-in-command follow?
A〕No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly.
B〕Advise ATC immediately.
C〕Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.
B
9174 Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A〕Altimeter setting. B〕Actual pressure at field elevation. C〕Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
B
9164 What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A〕Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B〕Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C〕Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B
9099 When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard A〕Affects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. B〕Corrections for static pressure systems. C〕Corrections for instrument error.
A 9173 If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between real altitude
and pressure altitude?
A〕They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B〕True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
C〕Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
B 9172 If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350,what is the density altitude compared to
pressure altitude? A〕Lower than pressure altitude. B〕Higher than pressure altitude. C〕Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lover altitudes.
B 9163 En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of
30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate
upon landing?
A〕585 feet.
B〕1,300 feet.
C〕Sea level.
C 8247 When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a
domestic air carrier's operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot-in-command take? A〕List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate B〕Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use C〕List at least one additional alternate airport
C 8256 Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is schedule for a 7-hour IFR flight? A〕No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles B〕An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA
C〕An alternate airport is required C 8262 An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hour
when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to
be
A〕2 miles or greater
B〕At least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum
C〕3 miles
B 8254 Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and
forecasts must indicate that weather condition swill be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A〕For a period 1 hour before or after the ETA B〕During the entire flight C〕When the flight arrives
C 8249 What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a
two-engine airplane?
A〕1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating
B〕1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating
C〕2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating
B 8250 If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is
the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A〕Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative B〕Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative C〕Not more than 1 hour at cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative
B 9073 What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine? A〕Supercharger gear ratio
B B〕Exhaust gas discharge C〕Throttle opening
9068 A Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines? A〕High RPM and low MAP B〕Low RPM and high MAP C〕High RPM and high MAP
9058 Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A〕Compressor discharge B〕Fuel spray nozzles C〕Turbine inlet
C
9060 B The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A〕Limiting compressor speed B〕Limiting exhaust gas temperature C〕Limiting torque
9064 C What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A〕Loud, stead roar accompanied by heavy shuddering B〕Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine C〕Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversals take place
9065 A What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A〕Strong vibrations and loud roar B〕Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal C〕Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed
9070 B Equivalent shaft horsepower(ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A〕Turbine inlet temperature B〕Shaft horsepower and jet thrust C〕Propeller thrust only
9059 What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine
performance? A〕As air density decreases, thrust increases B〕As temperature increases, thrust increases C〕As temperature increases, thrust decreases
9061 An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A〕Increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air B〕Remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure C〕Decrease due to higher density altitude
C
9063 What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A〕Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density B〕Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher C〕Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air
B
9317 Which is a definition of V2 speed? A〕Takeoff decision speed B〕Takeoff safety speed C〕Minimum takeoff speed
A
9076 Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A〕Critical engine failure speed B〕Rotation speed C〕Accelerate-stop distance
B 9327 What is an area identified by the term “stopway”? A〕An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal
takeoff B〕An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff C〕An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff
A 9324 What the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstruction and can be
considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A〕Clearway
B〕Stopway
C〕Obstruction clearance plane
A
9085 Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A〕Slush on runway or inoperative antiskid B〕Low gross weight C〕High density altitude
A
8383 What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? A〕Maximum range and distance glide B〕Best angle of climb
C〕Maximum endurance A 8401 At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A〕A speed less than that for L/DMAX
B〕A speed greater than that for L/DMAX
C〕A speed equal to that for L/DMAX B 8381 Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?
A〕Angle of attack
B〕Altitude
C〕Airspeed
C 9077 Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight
reduces?
A〕Increasing speed or altitude
B〕Increasing altitude or decreasing speed
C〕Increasing speed or decreasing altitude
B 9322 Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady flight speed or stalling speed in the landing
configuration?
A〕VS
B〕VS1
C〕VSO
C 8934 Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a
smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
A〕Reverted rubber hydroplaning
B〕Dynamic hydroplaning
C〕Viscous hydroplaning
A 8377 What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant
and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be
A〕The same
B〕Two times greater
C〕Four times greater
C 8378 What angle of attack and true airspeed should be used to generate the same amount lift as altitude is
increased?
A〕The same true airspeed and angle of attack
B〕A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
C〕 A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B 8348 What effects indicated stall speed?
A〕Weight, load factor, power
B〕Load factor, angle of attack, power
C〕Angle of attack, weight, air density
A
8382 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A〕Lift, cross weight and drag B〕Lift, airspeed and drag C〕Lift and airspeed, but no drag
B
8399 At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb A〕Low speed B〕High speed C〕Any speed
B
8379 How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A〕The same angle of attack B〕A lower angle of attack C〕A higher angle of attack
B
8360 What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMCA A〕Heading B〕Heading and altitude C〕Heading, altitude, ability to climb 50 ft/min
A
8347 What is load factor? A〕Lift multiplied by the total weight B〕Lift subtracted from the total weight C〕Lift divided by the total weight
C
8353 Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A〕Rate of turn B〕Angle of attack C〕True airspeed
B 8396 For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A〕Is directly related to the airplane's gross weight
B〕Varies with the rate of turn
C〕Is constant
C
9320 Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?
A〕VLE
B〕VMO/MMO
C〕VLO/MLO
B
8369 If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be
maintained? A〕VMCA B〕VYSE C〕VXSE
B
8370 What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine fails? A〕Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50% B〕Reduction of climb by 50% or more C〕Reduction of all performance by 50%
B
8326 Which of the following is considered a primary flight control? A〕Slats B〕Elevator C〕Dorsal fin
B
8327 Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A〕Rudder B〕Upper rudder C〕Leading-edge flaps
C
8343 Which of the following is considered a primary flight control? A〕Tabs B〕Flaps C〕Outboard ailerons
C
8324 When are an inboard aileron normally used? A〕Low-speed flight only B〕High-speed flight only C〕 Low-speed flight and high-speed flight
C
8325 When are an inboard aileron normally used?
A〕Low-speed flight only
B〕High-speed flight only
C〕 Low-speed flight and high-speed flight A 8336 Which is a purpose of ground spoiler?
A〕Reduce the wing's lift upon landing
B〕Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn
C〕Increase the rate of decent without gaining airspeed A 8333 For which purpose may flight spoiler be used?
A〕 Reduce the wing's lift upon landing
B〕Increase the rate of decent without increasing aerodynamic drag
C〕Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn A 8341 Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generated?
A〕Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B〕Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C〕Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A 9152 What is primary cause of changes in the Earth's weather?
A〕Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface
B〕Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface
C〕Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas A 9160 Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
A〕Over the arctic region
B〕Over the eye of a hurricane
C〕Over the surface of a dry, sunny region C 9159 What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A〕Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes
B〕Descending to the surface and then outward
C〕Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface B 9157 At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the
friction：
A〕Decreases windspeed and Coriolis force
B〕Decreases pressure gradient force
C〕Creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure A
9176 At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A〕At the poles
B〕Middle latitude (30 ° to 60 °)
C〕At the Equator
C
9178 Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone? A〕Calm B〕High pressure area C〕COL
B 9156 Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east movement of weather system?
A〕Arctic only
B〕Arctic and subtropical
C〕Subtropical only
B
9168 Where is a common location for an inversion? A〕At the tropopause B〕In the stratosphere C〕At the base of cumulus clouds
B
9241 Where are jetstreams normally located? A〕In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere B〕At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located C〕In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and
polar tropopause B 9209 Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
A〕Absence of wind and turbulence
B〕Absolute upper limit of cloud formation
C〕Abrupt upper change of temperature lapse rate
C
9229 Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? A〕Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front B〕Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream C〕Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream
B
9165 What term describes an elongated area of low pressure? A〕Trough B〕Ridge
C〕Hurricane or typhoon A 9191 What is afeature of a stationary front?
A〕The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface
B〕Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather C 9192 Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
A〕Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases
B〕Wind direction shifts to the left
C〕Atmospheric pressure increases
C
9213 What type weather change to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported? A〕frontal weather is becoming stronger B〕The front is dissipating C〕The front is moving at a faster speed
B
9216 In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form? A〕Warm fronts or occluded fronts B〕Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts C〕Cold front occlusions
B
9217 What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”? A〕Extreme temperature difference B〕Dewpoint difference C〕Stratus versus cumulus clouds
B
9228 Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream? A〕Cold front and warm front B〕Warm front C〕Occluded front
C
9153 What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A〕Convection currents at the surface B〕Cold temperatures C〕Poor visibility
C 9184 What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slight as altitude
is increased?
A〕The air is unstable
B〕A temperature inversion exists
C〕The air is stable C 9195 How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A〕Ambient temperature laps rate
B〕Atmospheric pressure at various levels
C〕Surface temperature/dewpoint spread
A
9155 When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period? A〕After sunrise B〕About 1 hour before sunrise C〕At midnight
A
9196 What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A〕The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air B〕Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression C〕Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night
B
9208 How are haze layers cleared or dispersed? A〕By convective mixing in cool night air B〕By wind or the movement of air C〕By evaporation similar to the clearing fog
B
9193 What minimum thickness of cloud is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity? A〕4,000 feet thick B〕2,000feet thick C〕A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level
A
9206 When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A〕Temperature inversion B〕Wind stronger than 15knots C〕Surface radiation
B
9207 Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog? A〕Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B〕A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100% relative humidity C〕Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10 to 25knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope
A
9175 Isobar on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure A〕At the surface B〕Reduced to sea level
C〕At a given atmospheric pressure altitude B 9218 Under what conditions would clear air turbulence most likely be encountered?
A〕When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart B〕When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart C〕When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knot
A
9236 A strong wind shear can be expected? A〕On the low pressure side of a 100 knot jetstream core B〕Where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knot, in a distance equal to 2.5(longitude C〕If the 5(C isotherms are spaced 100NM or closer together
A 9220 In comparision to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear
due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?
A〕Less power is required
B〕Higher pitch attitude is required
C〕Lower descent rate is required
B
9139 Which is a definition of “severe wind shear”? A〕Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knot, vertical shear expected B〕Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knot
or vertical speed changes greater than 500ft/min C〕Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical
speed changes in excess of 100ft/min B 9135 Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when constant tailwind shears to a calm
wind?
A〕Altitude increases, pitch and indicated airspeed decrease
B〕Altitude, pitch, indicated airspeed decrease
C〕Altitude, pitch, indicated airspeed increase
C
9201 Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A〕In front of the thunderstorm cell(anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell B〕Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud C〕On all side and directly under the thunderstorm cell
C
9166 What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A〕It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms B〕It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion
C〕It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere C 9131 Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A〕1,500ft/min
B〕4,500ft/min
C〕6,000ft/min
C 9132 An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across
the microburst of
A〕40 knots
B〕80 knots
C〕90 knots
B 9144 An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across
the microburst of
A〕40 knots
B〕80 knots
C〕90 knots
C
9150 What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A〕Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1minute B〕One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours C〕Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation
C
9136 What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? A〕Lower pitch attitude and regain airspeed B〕Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power C〕Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications
C
9190 What type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A〕Nimbostratus B〕Standing lenticular C〕Cirrocumulus
B
9226 What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A〕Rotor cloud B〕Standing lienticular C〕Low stratus
A 9235 Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A〕Convective turbulence
B〕High altitude turbulence
C〕Clear air turbulence
C
9232 Clear air turbulence associated with a mountain wave may extended as far as A〕1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain B〕5,000 feet above the tropopause C〕100 miles or more upwind of the mountain
B
9237 What is a likely location of clear air turbulence? A〕In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream B〕Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a jetstream C〕Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream
A 8258 The pilot-in-command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate? A〕The pilot-in-command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher
altitude B〕 The pilot-in-command shall not continue flight to the icing condition C〕 The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used B 8265 What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A〕Sweep off as much as possible and the residue must be polished smooth
B〕Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane
C〕Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as snow will blow off
B
9440 Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? A〕Decreased stall speed B〕Decreased pitch up tendencies C〕Decreased angle of attack for stalls
C
9449 Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane? A〕Increased stall speed B〕Increased pitch down tendencies C〕Increased angle of attack for stalls
A 9695 The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A〕Increased power
B〕A decreased stall speed
C〕An increased stall speed
C
9183 What is a feature of supercooled water? A〕The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact B〕The unstable water drop freeze upon striking an exposed object C〕It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls
B
9221 What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A〕Supercooled water drops B〕Water vapor C〕Visible water
C 9224 Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level
stratus clouds?
A〕Clear ice
B〕Frost ice
C〕Rime ice
C
9161 Freezing rain encounterd during climb is normally evidence that A〕A climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing B〕A layer of warmer air exists above C〕Ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below
B
9223 Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is precent? A〕Wet snow B〕Freezing rain C〕Ice pellets
B
9180 What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encounterd during flight? A〕Thunderstorm in higher level B〕Freezing rain in higher level C〕Snow at higher level
A
9181 When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces? A〕On clear nights with stable air and light wind B〕On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation C〕On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread
A
9010 Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A〕When the fuel supply becomes less than that required in flight B〕If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority C〕If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay
C 9119 Which flight condition of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
vortices of the greatest strength?
A〕Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up
B〕heavy, slow, gear and flaps down
C〕Heavy, fast, dear and flaps down
A 9120 Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large airplane is created only when that
aircraft is
A〕Developing lift
B〕Operating at high airspeed
C〕Using high power setting
A
9121 Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A〕Sinking below the aircraft generating the turbulence B〕Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude C〕Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began
A
9122 How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip A〕Inward, upward, and around wingtip B〕Counterclockwise when viewed from behind aircraft C〕Outward, upward, and around the wingtip
C
9125 To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A〕Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath B〕Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath C〕Remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane
B 9126 What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period
of time?
A〕Direct tailwind
B〕Light quartering tailwind
C〕Light quartering headwind
B 8365 Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized
A〕Negative longitudinal static stability
B〕Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability
C〕Neutral longitudinal static stability
C 8372 Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the
controls have been neutralized
A〕Negative static stability
B〕Positive static stability
C〕Negative dynamic stability
A
8366 What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A〕Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater B〕 Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater C〕Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down
A
8367 Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A〕Motion about the longitudinal axis B〕Motion about lateral axis C〕Motion about the vertical axis
B
8376 What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG position? A〕Sluggish in aileron control B〕Sluggish in rudder control C〕Unstable about the lateral axis
C
8387 Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur? A〕.50 to .75 Mach B〕.75 to 1.2 Mach C〕1.2 to 2.5 Mach
B
8390 a t what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? A〕Below .75 Mach B〕From .75 to 1.2 Mach C〕From 1.2 to 2.5 Mach
A
8388 What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A〕Initial buffet speed B〕Critical Mach number C〕Transonic index B
8389 What is the free stream Mach number which produce first evidence of local sonic flow? A〕Supersonic Mach number B〕Transonic Mach number C〕Critical Mach number
C 8395 What is the movement of the center of pressure when the winftips of a sweptwing airplane are
shockstalled first?
A〕Inward and aft
B〕Inward and forward
C〕Outward and forward
B 8394 What is the condition known as when gust cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while
yawing in the other?
A〕Porpoise
B〕Wingover
C〕Dutch roll
C
8393 What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design? A〕The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section B〕The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root C〕Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward
B 8392 What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of
a sweptwing aircraft?
A〕A high-speed stall and pitch up
B〕A severe moment or "tuck under"
C〕Severe porpoising
B 谢谢斑竹，太感谢了 111111111111111111111111111111111111111111 谢谢发布，辛苦了 谢谢斑竹，太感谢了 谢谢版主大人分享咯！！！！辛苦了 多谢分享啊啊啊啊啊啊 00000000000000000000000000 请问楼主您这是出自哪本书呀？？
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