成绩单
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1.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?
A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.
B X
2..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
C X
3.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
C X
4.. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?
A.Maintain a constant altitude.
B.Maintain a constant attitude.
C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
B X
5. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit.
B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
B X
6.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
A.Maximum range and distance glide.
B.Best angle of climb.
C.Maximum endurance.
A X
7.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.
A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds
B. altocumulus clouds
C. false cirrus clouds
A X
8. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
A.Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B.Copy of the flight plan.
C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.
B X
9.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
10.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
A.Initial buffet speed.
B.Critical Mach number.
C.Transonic index.
B X
11.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC?
A.308 feet.
B.193 feet.
C.200 feet.
B X
12.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?
A.Porpoise.
B.Wingover.
C.Dutch roll
C X
13..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.
C. There is an inversion with colder air below.
A X
14.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
15.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,000 feet.
C.2,350 feet.
B X
16.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the
A.-L/Dmax.
B.-Lift at low speeds.
C.-Drag and reduce airspeed.
B X
17.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?
A.Higher than at low elevation.
B.Lower than at low elevation.
C.The same as at low elevation.
A X
18.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will
A.change
B.not change
C.may change or may not change
A X
19.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?
A.24 minutes, 109 NAM.
B.25 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.23 minutes, 118 NAM.
C X
20.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation?
A.Request a clarification from the ATC.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Do not accept the clearance.
A X
21.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is
A. Developing lift.
B. Operating at high airspeeds.
C. Using high power settings.
A X
22.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
B X
23. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B X
24.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one?
A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence
B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time
C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas
B X
25.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
C X
26. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
B X
27.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong
A X
28.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace?
A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger.
B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry.
C.To protect military activities.
A X
29.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember
A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.
B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.
C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
A X
30.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to
A.FL 6,300m.
B.FL 6,000m.
C.FL 600m.
C X
31. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.1,500 feet
C.1,800 feet.
A X
32.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A. Convection currents at the surface.
B. Cold temperatures.
C. Poor visibility.
C X
33.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.13 minutes.
B.15 minutes.
C.16 minutes.
B X
34.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps?
A.123 knots and 3,050 feet.
B.138 knots and 3,050 feet.
C.153 knots and 2,050 feet.
B X
35.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.
C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
C X
36.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as .
A.plume
B.virga
C. dowdraft
B X
37.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF
A.19,400 feet.
B.20,000 feet.
C.23,800 feet.
B X
38.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter
A. A cold front and a upper jet
B. A worm front and a upper jet
C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence
A X
39.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is
A.the red blood cells
B.the plasma
C.hemoglobin
C X
40.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes.
A. from headwind to tailwind.
B. from left crosswind to right crosswind.
C. from right crosswind to left crosswind
C X
41.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan?
A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.
C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.
C X
42.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which
A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
C X
43.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS)
A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters
B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above
C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above;
B X
44.. An alternate airport for departure is required
A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.
C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.
A X
45.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
A X
46.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing
A. Wind shear warning
B. Aerodrome warning
C. Hazardous weather warning
A X
47.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?
A.prevent flow separation.
B.decrease rate of sink.
C.increase profile drag.
A X
48.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the
A.loss of the vertical component of lift
B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force
C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn
A X
49.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?
A.Increasing speed or altitude.
B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
B X
50.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A.the airplane rides on standing water.
B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
B X
51.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC?
A. braking action is "fair"
B. braking action is "zero"
C. braking action is "100%"
A X
52. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV?
A.R-175
B.R-165
C.R-345
C X
53.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU)
A. 50 metres
B. 500 metres
C. 150 metres
C X
54.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2,224 pounds.
B.1,987 pounds.
C.1,454 pounds.
A X
55. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above
A. FL 180.
B. FL 200.
C. FL 250.
C X
56.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,200 feet.
C.2,750 feet.
A X
57.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process?
A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.
B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.
C.A and B
C X
58.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots?
A.17,000 pounds.
B.20,800 pounds.
C.22,300 pounds.
B X
59.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B. Descending to the surface and then outward.
C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.
B X
60.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
C X
61. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?
A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.
B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3.
C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
C X
62..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A. nimbostratus.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Cirrocumulus.
B X
63.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW
A.9,926 pounds.
B.9,680 pounds.
C.9,504 pounds.
C X
64.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps?
A.Increase the camber of the wing.
B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.
C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
A X
65.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction?
A.To require a pilot to take a specific action.
B.To state some important information.
C.To warn the pilot.
A X
66.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative?
A.119,000 pounds.
B.136,000 pounds.
C.139,000 pounds.
C X
67.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.
C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
C X
68.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than
A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours
B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours
C.10 consecutive hours of duty
C X
69.. Which points should be report to ATC without request?
A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.
B. when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix.
C X
70.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
71. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights
B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone
C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone
B X
72.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
A.60days
B.90days
C.30days
A X
73. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.
B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.
C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
C X
74.TCASII provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic
A X
75.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh?
A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.
B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.
C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air.
B X
76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is
A.162o.
B.172o.
C.167o.
C X
77.. Northwest wing can be presented as .
A. 200°or NW
B. 315°or NW
C. 135°or SE
B X
78.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A.ARINC
B.Any FSS
C.Appropriate dispatch office
C X
79.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2?
A.140 knots.
B.145 knots.
C.148 knots.
B X
80.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground?
A.VMC.
B.VMCG.
C.VMCA.
B X
81.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?
A.The same angle of attack.
B.A lower angle of attack.
C.A higher angle of attack.
B X
82.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA
A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation
B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation
C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future
A X
83.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and
A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right
B.wrong
A X
84.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C X
85.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to
A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside
B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument
C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power
B X
86. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.
B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.
B X
87. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.
B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.
C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
A X
88.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request?
A. expected holding speed
B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.
C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
A X
89.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
A X
90..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.
B. Headwind or tailwind increase
C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
C X
91..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm?
A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat
B. Rising terrain
C. Uneven heat on the ground
C X
92. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport?
A. 250 knots
B. 230 knots
C. 210 knots
B X
93. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?
A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.
B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
C X
94.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader
A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.
B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources
C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
A X
95.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb
A.15 minutes.
B.14 minutes.
C.13 minutes.
C X
96.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots?
A.13,700 pounds.
B.18,600 pounds.
C.22,000 pounds.
B X
97.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter
A.N.
B.M.
C.X.
A X
98. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
A.the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
B X
99.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.
B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary
C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
C X
100.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C X
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