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1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is
A.1,496 feet.
B.900 feet.
C.1,244 feet.
A X
2. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?
A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft
B.Airborne radar
C.DME
C X
3.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is
A.35 hours
B.32 hours
C.30 hours
A X
4.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
A X
5. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?
A.1,000 feet
B.2,000 feet
C.2,500 feet
B X
6.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to
A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.
B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.
C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.
C X
7.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？
A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.
B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC．
C.A and B
C X
8.What is the purpose of a servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
B X
9.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
C X
10.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?
A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing
B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed
C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing
A X
11.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability
A.Motion about the longitudinal.
B.Motion about the lateral axis.
C.Motion about the vertical axis.
B X
12.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ?
A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.
B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.
C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
B X
13.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
B X
14.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following
A.(续正文，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
15.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority?
A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.
B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time.
C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis.
B X
16.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
A.124 knots.
B.137 knots.
C.130 knots.
C X
18.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front?
A.wind speed
B.air temperature
C.air pressure
B X
19..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with
A.in cumliform clouds
B.in high clouds, such as cirrus.
C.In altocumulus cloud.
A X
20. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for
A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
21.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should
A.Do not accept the clearance.
B.Read the clearance back entirely.
C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.
C X
22.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
C X
23..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
A. Altocumulus
B. Cumulonimbus
C. Stratocumulus
B X
24.．Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it?
A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.
B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training
C.A and B
C X
25. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?
A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.
B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required
C.For flights at or above FL 180
B X
26.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator
C.Outer compass locator.
B X
27. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
A X
28.TCASII provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic
A X
29.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?
A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.
B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.
C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.
C X
30.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport?
A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m.
B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m.
C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m.
C X
31. When is DME required for an instrument flight?
A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required
B.In terminal radar service areas
C.Above 12,500 feet MSL
A X
32. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?
A.285
B.055
C.235
B X
33.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag
B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag
C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
B X
34.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.
A.Positive dynamic stability.
B.Positive static stability.
C.Neutral dynamic stability.
B X
35.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
36.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine?
A.RPM.
B.Exhaust gas temperature.
C.Manifold pressure.
C X
37.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1?
A.143 knots.
B.144 knots.
C.145 knots.
A X
38.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up?
A.Over domestic only.
B.Over open sea.
C.Over domestic or open sea.
A X
39.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized
A.-Negative static stability
B.-Positive static stability
C.-Negative dynamic stability
A X
40.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ?
A. Slats
B. Elevator
C. Dorsal fin
B X
41.When are outboard ailerons normally used?
A.Low-speed flight only.
B.High-speed flight only.
C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.
A X
42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with
A.M070.
B.070M.
C.M0070.
A X
43..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.
A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain
B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms
C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing
C X
44.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
A.Tabs.
B.Flaps.
C.Outboard ailerons.
C X
45.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?
A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B.Lower-than-standard air density.
C.Increased headwind component.
C X
46.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is
A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃
B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃
C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃
C X
47. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of
A.127.6MHz.
B.127.6KHz.
C.114.7MHz.
A X
48.. When can a pilot expect landing priority?
A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan.
B. during emergency
C. both a and b
C X
49.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong.
A X
50.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A.VOR
B.ADF
C.VOR and DME
A X
51.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.
B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.
B X
52.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by
A.processing information from the eyes.
B.processing information from the inner ear.
C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues.
C X
53.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.
B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.
C.Rate and radius will increase.
A X
54.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of
A.pitching up.
B.pitching down.
C.leveling off.
A X
55.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?
A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.
B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.
C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.
A X
56.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?
A.24 minutes, 109 NAM.
B.25 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.23 minutes, 118 NAM.
C X
57.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate
A.342o.
B.347o.
C.352o.
B X
58.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A.entering approach controlled airspace.
B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.
C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
A X
59.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL)
A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline
B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone
C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone
A X
60.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by
A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement
B. A sovereign country or government unit
C. The FAA Administrator only
B X
61.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine?
A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases.
B.As altitude increases, thrust increases.
C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases.
A X
62.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?
A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet.
B.25,000 feet to the tropopause.
C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet
B X
63.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,000 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
A X
64.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4?
A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM.
B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM.
C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM.
C X
65..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?
A.Area with strong cold advection
B.Area where the sea and the land meet
C. Area near the front with thunderstorms
C X
66. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
A.required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B.required to have a second-class medical certificate.
C.not required to have a medical certificate.
C X
67.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one?
A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence
B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time
C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas
B X
68.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude?
A.Macho
B.Invulnerability:
C.Impulsivity:
C X
69.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40
A.3,625 pounds.
B.3,240 pounds.
C.2,980 pounds.
B X
70.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb
A.14 minutes.
B.16 minutes.
C.17 minutes.
C X
71.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace?
A.To protect military activities only.
B.To protect science tests only.
C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.
C X
72.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.
B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation
C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.
A X
73.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.
A. warm front.
B. stationary front.
C. cold front.
A X
74.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
75. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.
C.120 days after issue or renewal.
A X
76.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent?
A.632 feet per minute.
B.843 feet per minute.
C.737 feet per minute.
C X
77.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into
A.Series A and Series C.
B.Series A, Series C and Series D.
C.Series A and Series D.
A X
78. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond?
A.5
B.5
C.15
B X
79.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A.Critical engine failure speed.
B.Rotation speed.
C.Accelerate-stop distance.
A X
80.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
A.VMU.
B.VMD.
C.VFC.
A X
81. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.
C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B X
82. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?
A.1
B.2
C.3
A X
83.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？
A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.
B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.
C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible.
A X
84.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is
A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem
B.Evaluate the effect of the action
C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
C X
85.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course
A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.
B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.
C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B
A X
86.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight?
A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m.
B.An alternate airport is required.
C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.
B X
87.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front?
A. cumulonimbus
B. front fog
C. layer clouds
A X
88.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its
A.angle of attack
B.camber
C.energy
B X
89. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.
B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.
C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.
B X
90..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease?
A. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.
A X
91.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is
A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m
B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m
C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m
B X
92.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach
A.attitude may be higher than it appears.
B.attitude may be lower than it appears.
C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
B X
93.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed
A. It is a warm front.
B. It is a stationary front
C. It is a Cold frongt
C X
94.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,000 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
95.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?
A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension.
B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.
C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.
B X
96.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI?
A.90 knots.
B.96 knots.
C.110 knots.
A X
97.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.
B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.
C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.
B X
98.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility
A.ZBAA
B.ZSSS
C.ZUUU
B X
99.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON
A.16,400 feet.
B.19,600 feet.
C.18,700 feet.
A X
100.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
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