成绩单
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1.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A.Increase speed for a headwind.
B.Increase speed for a tailwind.
C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.
A X
2.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.
B.-positive longitudinal static stability.
C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
A X
3.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM?
A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.
B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.
C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.
A X
4.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are
A.quite different to those of hypoxia
B.quite similar to those of hypoxia
C.profuse sweating
B X
5.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?
A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.
B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.
C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.
C X
6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,000 feet.
C.2,350 feet.
B X
7.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?
A.An abrupt change in relative wind.
B.A decrease in angle of attack.
C.Sudden decrease in load factor.
A X
8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway?
A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight.
B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight.
C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight.
C X
9. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly
A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. back to the departure airport.
A X
10. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B.trip number and weight and balance data.
C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
A X
11.TCAS I provides
A.Traffic and resolution advisories
B.Proximity warning
C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic
B X
12. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
A X
13.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means
A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation
B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown
B X
14.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots?
A.9,800 pounds.
B.11,200 pounds.
C.17,000 pounds.
B X
15.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
A.lift, gross weight, and drag.
B.lift, airspeed, and drag.
C.lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B X
16.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater
A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km
B. 40 degrees, 2 km
C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km
A X
17.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance?
A.Eustachian tube
B.the cochlea
C.the semicircular canals
C X
18.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have
A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background
B.White inscriptions on a black background
C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background
C X
19.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route
B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo"
C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather
A X
20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?
A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
C X
21.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe?
A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
B.jet thrust only.
C.propeller thrust only.
A X
22.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight?
A.1,150 feet.
B.500 feet.
C.300 feet.
C X
23.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan?
A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.
C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.
C X
24.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
A. Notify ATC immediately.
B. Squawk 7600.
C. Monitor the VOR receiver
A X
25.As the CG is moved forward, the stability
A.Improves
B.Decrease
C.dose not change
A X
26. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.
B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.
C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
C X
27.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold?
A. 200 knots
B. 170 knots
C. 150 knots
C X
28.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow?
A.supersonic mach number
B.transonic mach number
C.critical mach number
C X
29.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles
B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.
C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.
B X
30.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
A.Maximum range and distance glide.
B.Best angle of climb.
C.Maximum endurance.
A X
31.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds?
A.1,750 feet.
B.2,100 feet.
C.2,500 feet.
C X
32.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF
A.24,600 feet.
B.23,400 feet.
C.20,000 feet.
A X
33.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A.Critical engine failure speed.
B.Rotation speed.
C.Accelerate-stop distance.
A X
34.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb
A.15 minutes.
B.14 minutes.
C.13 minutes.
C X
35.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard?
A.Five
B.Four
C.Two
A X
36.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is
A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred
B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change
C.Do what we must to do in the situation
A X
37.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of
A.40 kilometers.
B.50 kilometers.
C.46 kilometers.
B X
38.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described
A. Strong wind, bad visibility
B. Dust, thunderstorm,
C. Low cloud with strong wind
A X
39.Identify REIL.
A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.
C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
C X
40.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A.Radar and RVR.
B.RCLS and REIL
C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.
C X
41.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct
A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa,
B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa,
C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa,
C X
42.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.
A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B. decreases pressure gradient force.
C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
A X
43. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies?
A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land.
B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios.
C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.
C X
44.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction?
A.To require a pilot to take a specific action.
B.To state some important information.
C.To warn the pilot.
A X
45.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into
A.Series A and Series C.
B.Series A, Series C and Series D.
C.Series A and Series D.
A X
46..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear?
A.Area with strong cold advection
B.Area where the sea and the land meet
C. Area near the front with thunderstorms
C X
47. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC?
A.D0.3 PEK.
B.Above PEK VOR.
C.D0.2 PEK.
B X
48.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight
B X
49.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is
A.right
B.wrong.
A X
50.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position
A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data.
B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.
C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers.
C X
51.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.
B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C.decrease due to higher density altitude.
C X
52.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C X
53.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which
A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.
C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
C X
54.．Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it?
A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.
B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training
C.A and B
C X
55.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
A.Initial buffet speed.
B.Critical Mach number.
C.Transonic index.
B X
56.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?
A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.
B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust.
C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.
A X
57.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of
A.114.7MHz.
B.514MHz.
C.113.6MHz.
C X
58.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
A X
59.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident
B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action
C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents
C X
60.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are
A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
B X
61. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond?
A.4
B.15
C.17
C X
62.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A.V2.
B.VEF.
C.V1.
C X
63.What is the purpose of a servo tab?
A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.
B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.
C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
B X
64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is
A.12hours
B.13 hours
C.14 hours
C X
65. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are
A.supplemental and commercial.
B.supplemental and domestic.
C.flag and commercial.
A X
66. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA?
A.DH20',VIS800m.
B.DH200',RVR550m.
C.DH300',VIS1600m.
C X
67. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading?
A.143o.
B.233o.
C.53o.
A X
68..What is the hijack code?
A. 7200.
B. 7500.
C. 7777.
B X
69.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's
A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right
B.wrong
A X
70.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5?
A.124 knots.
B.137 knots.
C.130 knots.
C X
71.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
C X
72.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?
A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B.Lower-than-standard air density.
C.Increased headwind component.
C X
73.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
A.VMU.
B.VMD.
C.VFC.
A X
74.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.
A X
75.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG?
A.9,000m.
B.12,000m.
C.3,100m.
A X
76.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF
A.19,400 feet.
B.20,000 feet.
C.23,800 feet.
B X
77.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.
B. Original dispatch release.
C. Certificate holder's manual.
C X
78.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
C X
79.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.
C X
80.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in
A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus
B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus
C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus
A X
81.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl?
A.2 hours 12 minutes.
B.2 hours 15 minutes.
C.2 hours 18 minutes.
A X
82.. Where does a danger airspace may be located?
A.Over the territory only.
B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.
C.Over the open sea only.
B X
83.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to
A.600m AGL.
B.Final approach fix.
C.The first holding pattern level.
C X
84.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A.Teardrop only
B.Direct only
C.Parallel only
B X
85.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?
A. clear ice.
B. Frost ice.
C. Rime ice.
B X
86.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?
A.Low speed.
B.High speed.
C.Any speed.
B X
87..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
A X
88.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots?
A. 150 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 330 knots
A X
89.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent?
A.760 feet per minute.
B.780 feet per minute.
C.800 feet per minute.
B X
90.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?
A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.
B X
91.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
A.Green yellow and white beacon light
B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white
C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white
A X
92.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70
A.35,000 pounds.
B.32,600 pounds.
C.30,200 pounds.
B X
93.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?
A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude
C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents
A X
94.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots?
A.17,000 pounds.
B.20,800 pounds.
C.22,300 pounds.
B X
95.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2?
A.24 minutes, 109 NAM.
B.25 minutes, 125 NAM.
C.23 minutes, 118 NAM.
C X
96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN?
A.FL 29,500 feet.
B.FL 8,100 feet.
C.FL 39,400 feet.
C X
97.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A.entering approach controlled airspace.
B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.
C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
A X
98.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?
A.Inner marker.
B.Middle compass locator.
C.Outer compass locator.
C X
99. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A.3 months.
B.6 months.
C.30 days.
A X
100.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A.Same direction.
B.Opposite direction.
C.Remains fixed for all positions.
C X
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