1． If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in
the SIGMET be obtained?
A． ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be
provided in the FSS broadcast.
B．By contacting a weather watch station.
C．By contacting the nearest AFSS.
2. On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using
A．a station circle at the aircraft location.
B．a square at the aircraft location.
C．a star at the aircraft location.
B
3. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,
A．ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD.
B．ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it.
C．ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.
C
4. What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A．It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme
turbulence during the next 24 hours.
B．It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm
activity during the following 24 hours.
C．It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the
C
extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb). B
5．Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or
compressor blades
A．can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.
B．could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no
affect on engine thrust or power.
C．can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or
compressor stalls.
6．What is the single source reference that contains information
regarding volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region?
A．Weather Depiction Chart.
B．In-Flight Weather Advisories.
C．Area Forecast.
B
7．Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing
an airplane using a two-step process?
A．Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
B．Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.
C．Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.
A
8． Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport,
but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters “V(C).?When V(C) appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of
A．a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
B．a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex.
C．10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
A
9．Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids
A．need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
B．must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
C． must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff
can be made as it will blow off. B
10．Where are jetstreams normally located?
A．In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.
B．At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are
located.
C．In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is
a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause. B
11．A strong wind shear can be expected
A．on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.
B．where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal
to 2.5?longitude.
C．if the 5°C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer together.
A
12．What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the
last step of a two-phase process?
A．Hot
B．Warm
C．Cold
C
13．Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
A．Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold
front.
B．Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.
C．Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the
jetstream. B
14．On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft
observations are used in the analysis, over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation plotted using
A．a station circle at the cloud top location.
B．a square at the cloud top location.
C．a star at the cloud top location.
C
15．When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud
should be overflown by at least
A．1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
B．2,500 feet.
C．500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.
A
16．At what time are current AIRMETs broadcast in their entirety by
the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS)?
A．15 and 45 minutes after the hour during the first hour after
issuance, and upon receipt.
B．Every 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
C．There is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of Inflight
Weather Advisories. C
17．Vertical wind shear can be determined directly from the dashed
lines on the tropopause data chart. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is
A．4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet.
B．6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.
C．greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.
B
18．Which of the following will decrease the holding time during
anti-icing using a two-step process?
A．Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B．Decrease the water content.
C．Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
A
19．What information from the control tower is indicated by the
following transmission?
“SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST
BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.
A．A downburst is located at the center of the airport.
B．Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway.
C．There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.
20．The TWEB Route Forecasts and Synopses are issued by the
Weather Service Forecast Offices (WSFOs) four times per day according to time zone. The TWEB forecast is valid for a/an
A．8-hour period.
B．12-hour period.
C．15-hour period.
B
21． Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight
and then reported in a PIREP?
A．Turbulence and structural icing.
B．Jetstream-type winds and icing.
C．Level of the tropopause and turbulence.
A
22．Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step
process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?
A．It is more complicated.
B．The holding time is increased.
C．More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits
of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces. C
23．Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface
fronts?
A．Upper winds blowing across the front.
B．Upper low located directly over the surface low.
C．The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.
A
24．What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains
unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
A．The air is unstable.
B．A temperature inversion exists.
C．The air is stable.
C
25．Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms
and some contain isotachs. The contours depict
A．ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft.
B．highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface.
C．highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.
A
26．How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to
severe intensity, be indicated on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart?
A．SLGT within cross-hatched areas.
B．APCHG within any area.
C．SVR within any area.
B 27What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?
A．Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
B．Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.
C． Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over
land. A
28．Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
A．Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate
the downward velocity.
B．Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm
after striking the surface.
C．Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse
into an updraft before reaching the surface. A
29．Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A．provide ice protection during flight.
B．are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
C．on the ground, cause no performance degradation during
takeoff.
B
30．What sources reflect the most accurate information on current
and forecast icing conditions?
A．Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and the Area
Forecast.
B．PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
C．PIREPs, AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.
C
31．Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to
A．-20°F ambient temperature.
B．+32°F outside temperature or below.
C．a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or
airplane surface temperature. C
32．What conditions are indicated on a Weather Depiction Chart?
A． Actual sky cover, visibility restrictions, and type of precipitation at
reporting stations.
B．Forecast ceilings and visibilities over a large geographic area.
C．Actual en route weather conditions between reporting stations.
A
1．Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an
aircraft is the responsibility of the A.aircraft dispatcher.
B. flight navigator.
C. pilot-in-command.
C.
2. The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is
A. 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2.
B. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2.
C. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.
C.
3. Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air
carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR
minimum en route altitude?
A.The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet
vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight
visibility.
B.The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an
overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud
cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at
least 5 miles flight visibility.
C.The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least
500 feet above the IFR MEA.
B.
4.What is the maximum number of degrees between the final
approach course and the runway centerline for a LORAN RNAV
approach to be considered a straight-in approach?
A.5
B.10
C.30
C
5. What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for
operating in Class C airspace?
A.No specific certification but a two-way radio.
B.At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio.
C.At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a
TSO-C74b transponder.
A.
6.A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of
published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000
feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated
mountainous areas within the United States is called
A.Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA).
B.Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA). C.Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA). B 7.When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
A.1 minute.
B.1-1/2 minutes.
C.1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
B
8.
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to
be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air
carrier flight are
A.those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the
time the flight is expected to arrive.
B.those specified in the certificate holder’s Operations
Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.
C.those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from
1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.
B
9.
What action should the pilot take when “gate hold?procedures
are in effect?
A.Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.
B.Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance.
C.Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance
prior to leaving the parking area.
A
10.
What is the pilot’s responsibility for clearance or instruction
readback?
A.Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude
restrictions, and vectors.
B.If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment
is sufficient.
C.Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the
message is understood.
A
11.What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to
maintain “VFR on Top?
A.May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers.
B.Must maintain VFR clearance above or below.
C.May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between
layers.
A
12. What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft
when “gate hold?procedures are in effect?
A.They are given preference for departure over other aircraft.
B.They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the
runway or warmup block.
C.They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will
receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.
B
13.When a composite flight plan indicates VFR for the first portion
of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?
A．The VFR portion is automatically canceled and the IFR portion is
automatically activated when the pilot reports IFR conditions.
B．The pilot should advise ATC to cancel VFR and activate the IFR
portion of the flight.
C．The pilot should close the VFR portion with the nearest FSS and
request the IFR clearance at least 5 minutes prior to IFR. C 14.An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be
A.2 miles or greater.
B.at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable
minimum.
C.3 miles.
B
15.While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR
approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?
A.Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.
B.When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.
C.Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
C
16. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as
practicable after taking off to what altitude?
A.1,000 feet AGL.
B.1,500 feet AGL.
C.5,000 feet AGL.
B
17.If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a
published instrument approach that specifies “NO PT,?the pilot
should
A.advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed.
B.not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so
by ATC.
C.execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.
B
18．At
what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large
airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?
A.1,500 feet AGL.
B.2,000 feet AGL.
C.2,500 feet AGL.
A
19． When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of
the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?
A．The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is
automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions.
B． The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact
the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion.
C． The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate
the VFR portion.
B
20.What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within
Class C airspace?
A.Two-way communications.
B.Two-way communications and transponder.
C.Transponder and DME.
B
21．When
cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at
what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A.At the published DH.
B.At the MDA published or a circling approach.
C.As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
C
22．Under
what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an
instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport? A.If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. B.When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. C.When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach. C 23.When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take? A.List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. B.Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for
the airplane in use.
C.List at least one additional alternate airport. C
24．Which
aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR)
above 1,500 feet?
A.IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
B.IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
C.IFR Planning Chart.
A
25．Pilots
should state their position on the airport when calling the
tower for takeoff
A.from a runway intersection.
B.from a runway intersection, only at night.
C.from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.
A
26What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to “VERIFY
9,000?and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?
A.Immediately climb to 9,000.
B.Report climbing to 9,000.
C.Report maintaining 8,000.
C
27.If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument
approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?
A.Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established
on the missed approach course.
B.Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual
reference is not regained, perform missed approach.
C.Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further
instructions.
A
28What minimum information does an abbreviated departure
clearance “cleared as filed?include?
A.Clearance limit and en route altitude.
B.Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
C.Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.
C
29.How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight
plan?
A.The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix.
B.All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.
C.The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be
compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.
B
30.To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight,
the word “LIFEGUARD?should be entered in which section of the
flight plan?
A.Aircraft type/special equipment block.
B.Pilot’s name and address block.
C.Remarks block.
C
31． What is the purpose of the term “hold for release?when included
in an IFR clearance?
A.A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or
need to issue further instructions.
B.When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have
time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released.
C.Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an
estimate of the time the flight will be released.
A
32.How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?
A.A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.
B.A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used.
C.A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting
points.
A
33.In what altitude structure is a transponder required when
operating in controlled airspace?
A.Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. B.Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. C.Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. B 34.What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach? A.Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. B.Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. C.Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final. B
35．What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations
with pretaxi clearance programs?
A.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will
receive taxi instruction with clearance.
B.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive
taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup.
C.Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then
request taxi clearance from ground control.
C
36.When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the
following should approach control be advised of immediately?
A.Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.
B.If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
C.If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
A
37.Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior
to completing the flight?
A．Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from
FARs.
B．Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC.
C．Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.
C
38．When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from
an ILS approach? A.At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. B.When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. C.At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost. C 39.What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot
A．may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.
B．must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a
published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.
C．may descend from the assigned altitude only when established
on the final approach course.
B
40.When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR
approach at an uncontrolled airport?
A.Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.
B.When aligned on the final approach course.
C.When cleared for the approach.
A
41.When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a
specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point
is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A.At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
B.As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in
sight.
C.At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.
B
42.When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank
angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?
A.3?per second or 25?bank, whichever is less.
B.3?per second or 30?bank, whichever is less.
C.1-1/2?per second or 25?bank, whichever is less.
A
43.What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer
area of Class C airspace?
A.The same as within Class C airspace when communications and
radar contact is established.
B.Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer
area.
C.Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact
is established.
A
44Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing
a special or privately owned IAP?
A.Upon approval of ATC.
B.Upon approval of the owner.
C.Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.
B
45.Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not
in radar contact?
A.Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed
approach.
B.Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound,
and missed approach.
C.Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound,
procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the
runway.
A
46.What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C
airspace?
A.Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except
between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.
B.Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation
between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.
C.Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft,
and traffic advisories.
A
47.What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized
“VFR on Top?
A.The same afforded all IFR flights.
B.3 miles horizontally instead of 5.
C.Traffic advisories only.
C
48． What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance
limit and further clearance has not been received?
A.Assume lost communications and continue as planned.
B.Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received.
C.Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for
holding.
C
49.Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or
MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary
visual reference for the intended runway?
A.Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a
necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA.
B.Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any
portion of the approach light system can be seen.
C.The approach light system can be used as a visual reference,
except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red
light bars be visible and identifiable.
C
50.When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?
A．Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM.
B．Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic
Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.
C．Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then
broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.
B
51.Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply
with authorization to maintain “VFR on Top?
A.Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in
VFR conditions.
B.Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with
applicable instrument flight rules.
C.Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with
applicable instrument flight rules.
B
52.Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?
A.All compulsory reporting points en route.
B.The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight.
C.The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.
C
53.In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?
A.“Vectors?provided for navigational guidance or “Pilot NAV?with
courses the pilot is responsible to follow.
B.“Vectors?and “Pilot NAV?for pilots to use at their discretion.
C.Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes
and instructions.
A
54. What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace? A.Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace.
B.Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. C.Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions. B 55.At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
A.180 knots.
B.200 knots.
C.230 knots. B
56. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?
A.265 knots.
B.250 knots. C.230knots. A
57. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?
A．156 knots.
B．180 knots.
C．200knots.
C 58.What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?
A.288 knots. B.250knots. C.230knots. B作者: chenruilang 时间: 2011-4-7 22:31:37 标题: 谢谢楼主
