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RMIT University - Flight Training
CPL
3.06 Meteorology
PROGRESS TEST
1. When flying from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure the altimeter will:
a) Overread
b) Under read
c) Be unaffected
d) Give fluctuating readings
2. The accepted relationship between pressure in hectopascals and height in the lower layers of the atmosphere is:
a) 30hpa/1ft
b) 1hpa/30 in hg
c) 1 hpa/30ft
d) 1013hpa / 36090ft
3. During a briefing, this message was given:
SPECI YPAD 0815 34015/30 7000 3ST004 5ST007 12/13 1012.
This message is a :
a) TAF
b) SIGMET
c) Severe turbulence warning
d) An aerodrome report and has been issued because conditions have deteriorated below a given limit/s
4. Meteorological visibility refers to:
a) The distance you can see along a runway
b) The visibility on the approach or the take off splay
c) The greatest visibility over half or more of the horizon
d) The greatest visibility over the total horizon
5. If you are flying over a mountain ridge in strong winds, the most likely area that the worst turbulence would be is:
a) Above the ridge
b) Below the ridge
c) Upwind of the ridge
d) In the lee of the ridge
6. You are flying above an area of small CU. Flying conditions are likely to be:
a) smooth
b) Moderate turbulence
c) Slightly turbulent
d) Occasional turbulence in up and downdraughts
7. When viewed from above a mountain, the cloud type indicating the presence of mountain waves is:
a) Fog
b) Stratus
c) Cumulus
d) Lenticular
8. In a sea breeze over land, which of the following conditions is most likely to occur:
a) Advection fog reducing visibility
b) Moderate turbulence in clear air
c) Smooth flying conditions
d) Rain showers
9. You are flying in an area of thunderstorms. The main hazard of lightning is:
a) Holes in the aircraft skin
b) Persons inside being electrocuted
c) Failure of electrical systems
d) The aircraft catching fire
10. Which of the following are associated with squall lines:
a) clear skies, calm winds
b) Heavy non stop rain
c) Thunderstorms
d) Land breezes
11. Advection fog is most likely produced by:
a) cold air progressing over a cold surface
b) cold air progressing over a warm surface
c) a warm air mass passing over a colder surface
d) a warm air mass passing over a hotter surface
12. Which of the following are likely to result in low ceilings and reduced visibility:
a) fair weather cumulus
b) Nimbostratus
c) Cirrus
d) Altocumulus
13. You arrive at the aerodrome early in the morning. Calm conditions exist, and these are expected to remain because:
a) There is a forecast cold front approaching
b) Forecast temperature is 40oC and there are no clouds
c) There is an extensive layer of stratus cloud
14. Data: ARFOR w/v 130/45, TR (T) =060o Variation = 11oE TAS = 135kts
Find the approximate heading and ground speed
a) 078M, 113kts
b) 067M, 113kts
c) 077M, 106kts
d) 085M, 101kts
15. In a TAF and an ARFOR the wind is given in:
a) TRUE for TAF but MAGNETIC for ARFOR
b) TRUE in both cases
c) TRUE for ARFOR and MAGNETIC for TAF
d) MAGNETIC for both
16. When will a land breeze be strongest?
a) Around sunrise
b) During the evening
c) Around noon
d) About 2pm
17. What is the temperature range that clear ice is likely to be most severe?
a) -15o to -35oC
b) +15o to +35oC
c) 0o to +15oC
d) 0o to -15oC
18. How will fog dissipate?
a) With the formation of cirrus cloud
b) A fall in temperature
c) An increase in wind speed
d) An increase in relative humidity
19. Which of the following will cause the most rapid build up of clear airframe icing
a) flying through rotor/ lenticular cloud
b) Flying through freezing rain
c) Flying through cirrus cloud
d) Flying in fog
20. Refer to the area forecast for the following. (2 marks)
At 0415 UTC you depart on a VFR flight tracking direct from Essendon to Albury. The wind forecast for your cruising level of A070 is:
a) 280¡ãM, 35 kts
b) 250¡ãM, 40 kts
c) 290 ¡ãT, 35 kts
d) 240 ¡ãM, 35 kts
AREA FORECAST 251530 TO 260500 AREAS 30/31/32
OVERVIEW:
COLD FRONT SW OF MOUNT GAMBIER MOVING EAST/NORTH EAST 30/35 KNOTS.
FCST POSITION 17Z NEAR MOUNT GAMBIER 23Z REN/FLI 05Z AMAY/MCO.
STRONG N/NW FLOW TURNING W/SW BEHIND FRONT. RAIN AREAS WITH LOW CLOUD N
SLOPES AHEAD OF FRONT. SHOWERS FOLLOWING.
AMD SUBDIVISIONS:
A: E OF FRONT
B: W OF FRONT
AMD WIND
2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500
A: 340/35 300/35 290/35 290/40 MS04 290/45 MS12 290/55 MS23
B: 250/35 250/35 260/40. 260/50 MS06 270/50 MS12 270/60 MS23
AMD CLOUD:
A: ISOL CB 3000/35000. SCT ST 1000/3000 IN RAIN BUT AREAS BKN ALONG N
SLOPES OF DIVIDING RANGE. SCT CU 3000/10000. SCT SC 3500/6000 BKN IN RAIN
AND RANGES. AREAS BKN ACAS 10000/20000 SCT IN NW.
B: SCT ST 1000/3000 IN SHOWERS BKN HEAVY SHOWERS AND NEAR FRONT.
BKN CU 2500/9000 OCNL TOPS 15000 COAST/SEA. SCT SC 3500/5500.
VISIBILITY:
IM 6 KM IN RA/SH, 4000M HEAVY SHOWERS, 3000M THUNDERSTORMS
AMD WEATHER:
A: ISOL THUNDERSTORMS. PATCH RAIN/SH.
B: SCT SHOWERS MORE WDSP WITH FRONT. ISOL HEAVY SHOWERS.
FREEZING LEVEL:
A: 7500
B: 5500
ICING:
MOD ACAS/CU
TURBULENCE:
MOD AC/CU AND OCNL MOD BLW 10000FT LAND AREAS WITH OCNL SEV BELOW 10000FT S OF BORDERTOWN/CORRYONG LEE RANGES.
CRITICAL LOCATIONS (HEIGHTS ABOVE MSL):
KILMORE GAP: 9999 80RASH BKN ST 1500 N APPROACHES BEC SCT AFTER 01Z.
BKN CU/SC 3000
INTER 0105 4000 81XXSH BKN ST 1500
TAF YBLT 2008 35018kt 9999 RA FEW020 BKN025 BKN090 FM21
27020G32 SHRA BKN010 BKN020 FM23 FEW010 BKN020 INTER 2108
4000+SH BKN010 T 08 09 11 12 Q 1003 1004 1005 1005
21. The transition zone between two air masses of different density is referred to as a:
a) trough
b) friction layer
c) front
d) turbulence zone
22. A SPECI is issued when:
a) conditions are forecasted to fluctuate about or below specified criteria
b) conditions are below IFR minima
c) conditions are reported to fluctuate about or below specified criteria
d) conditions are below VFR minima
23. While cruising at or below A100, the altimeter subscale setting to be used is:
a) QFE
b) 1013.2 hpa
c) local QNH
d) area QNH
24. Rapid freezing of small supercooled water droplets produces:
a) hail
b) rime ice
c) hoar frost
d) clear ice
25. When the dry bulb temperature and the dew point temperature have the same value:
a) the temperature must be above freezing
b) the atmosphere is stable
c) the atmosphere is unstable
d) the relative humidity is 100%
26. With the passage of a warm front in the southern hemisphere:
a) the wind veers, the temperature rises and the pressure decreases
b) the wind backs, the temperature falls and the pressure falls
c) the wind backs, the temperature rises and the pressure falls
d) the wind veers, the temperature rises and the pressure rises
TAF ABBN0300UTC 024 16015KT 9999 ¨C RASH SCT025 SCT040
T17 18 19 19 Q1020 1018 1017 1017
METAR/TTF ABBN 0300UTC 18020KT 9999- RASH BKN 020 18/16 Q1017 NOSIG
27. Consider the meteorological message above. The cloud amount, type and height forecast for an aircraft arriving at ABBN at 0530 is
a) 3-4 octas at 2500 ft AGL
b) 3-4 octas at 4000 ft AGL
c) 5-7 octas at 2000 ft AGL
d) 3-4 octas at 2500 ft AMSL
28. The lowest cloud base forecast for an arrival at ABBN at 0700 is:
a) 2000 ft AGL
b) 2500 ft AGL
c) 4000 ft AGL
d) 2000 ft AGL
29. Conditions to enhance the development of tropical cyclone would be:
a) a monsoonal airflow over a hot tropical land mass
b) an area of low pressure within five degrees of the equator
c) an area of low pressure over a tropical ocean
d) strong convergence of the trade wind systems
30. The main hazard to aircraft presented by dust storms is that they cause:
a) widespread areas of reduced visibility up to a relatively high altitude
b) widespread areas of reduced visibility close to the surface
c) engine damage by ingestion of a coarse abrasive particles
d) reduction of an in-flight visibility due to abrasion to the aircraft¡¯s windscreen
31. The term used by meteorologists for a clockwise change in wind direction is:
a) backing
b) windshear
c) veering
d) variable
32. In Winter, a cold airstream in SE Australia that produces showers or thunderstorms is usually:
a) a dry northerly stream
b) an easterly stream
c) a moist northerly stream
d) a southerly stream
33. Cross Isobar flow occurs with which occurrence?
a) Reduced pressure gradient force, and is approximately 30o over land and 10o over sea
b) Reduced coriolis force
c) Geostrophic wind flow
d) Reduced pressure gradient force, and is approximately 10o over land and 30o over sea
34. The worst area of weather associated with a mature tropical cyclone moving west is:
a) SE Quadrant
b) NW Quadrant
c) SW Quadrant
d) NE Quadrant
35. QNH values extracted from a TAF for Darwin reads ¡°1009 1010 1011 1009¡±
The Pressure variations are most likely caused by:
a) Warm front passage
b) Semidiurnal variation of pressure
c) Cold front passage
d) A continual increase in wind speed
36. TAF YMTG 280332Z 0414 18010KT 9999 FEW025 FM 06 9999 BKN010
T23 20 16 15 Q 1021 1022 1023 1023
For a VFR flight into Mt Gambier arriving at 0630UTC, which of the following would apply:
a) Flight could be planned to destination only if an alternate is provided
b) Flight could be planned to destination if an alternate is provided or 30mins holding fuel is carried
c) Flight could be planned to destination if an alternate is provided or 60mins holding fuel is carried
d) Flight cannot be planned to this destination with these conditions
37. TAF YBHI 300115Z 0214 VRB05KT 9999 +RASH SCT080 PROB30 INTER 0511 5000 TS FEW080CB
T 32 34 32 25 Q 1019 1017 1017 1018
If the planned ETA for your VFR flight into Broken Hill was 0430UTC , the following would apply:
a) No alternate or holding is required for this period
b) An alternate must be planned
c) An alternate must be planned or 30mins holding fuel carried
d) An alternate must be planned or 60mins holding fuel carried
e) Flight cannot be planned to this destination with these conditions
38. If the temperatures at 2000ft AMSL and 10000ft AMSL are 16oC and -4oC respectively, the atmosphere will most likely be:
a) conditionally stable, ie stable until condensation takes place
b) stable because ELR is 2.5oC/1000¡¯
c) conditionally stable ie. Unstable until condensation takes place
d) unstable because the ELR is 2oC/1000¡¯
39. Isolated or scattered cumulonimbus clouds over northern inland Australia during summer will usually form by:
a) convection only
b) frontal lifting
c) either convection or widespread ascent
d) widespread ascent only
40. The reading of wet and dry bulb thermometers at meteorological stations serves to calculate:
a) humidity
b) pressure
c) stability
d) minimum temperature
41. When the air temperature at a particular level is higher than that existing at a lower level:
a) the pressure will be low
b) the pressure will be high
c) the air is unstable
d) an inversion exists
42. If the ELR is between 1.5degrees C and 3 degrees C, the air is:
a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutrally stable
d) stable for dry air and unstable for saturated air
43. Warm air is rising adiabatically above a field, surface temp +24 degrees C. If the dew point is +3 degrees C, the cloud base and freezing level respectively are approximately:
a) 6000 ft and 8000 ft
b) 7000 ft and 9000ft
c) 9000ft and 10500ft
d) 6000ft and 7000 ft
44. Warm air masses are characterised by:
a) turbulence and good visibility
b) showers and thunderstorms
c) stable with hazy conditions
d) good visibility and thunderstorms
45. A cold front zone is where:
a) cold air is displacing warm air at the surface
b) warm air is displacing cold air at the surface
c) air is moving from a cold to a warm region
d) air is moving from a warm to a cold region
46. The Inter tropic convergence zone is a boundary between:
a) Maritime and continental airmasses in tropical regions
b) Two doldrums belts
c) Airstreams originating in the northern and southern hemispheres
d) Monsoons and trade winds
RMIT University - Flight Training
CPL
3.06 Meteorology
PROGRESS TEST ¨C ANSWERS
1. a 40. a
2. c 41. d
3. d 42. d
4. c 43. b
5. d 44. c
6. a 45. a
7. d 46. c
8. a
9. c
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. c
14. b
15. b
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. b
20. ..
21. c
22. a
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. c
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. a
31. c
32. d
33. b
34. c
35. b
36. a
37. c
38. a
39. c