CBT D

帅哥

成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 2.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 3.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 4.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 5.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 6.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 7.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 8. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 9.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 10.．After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 11.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 12. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 13.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 14. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 15.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 16. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 17.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 19.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 21. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 22.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 23.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 24.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 25.．The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 26.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 27.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 28.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 29.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 30.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 31.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 32.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 33.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 34. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 35.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 36.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 37..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 38. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 39..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 40.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 41.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 42.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. B X 43.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 44.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 45.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 46.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 47.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 48.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 50. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 51.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 52.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 53.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 54.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 55.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 56.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 57.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 58.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 59.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 60.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 61.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 62. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 63..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 64. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 65.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 66. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 67.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 68.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.(续正文，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 70.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 71. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 72. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 73.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 74.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 75.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 77.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 78.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 79..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 81.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 82.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 83.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 84. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 85.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 86.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 87.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 88. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 89.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 90.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.Increases takeoff distance. B.Decreases takeoff speed. C.Decreases takeoff distance. A X 91.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 92.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 93.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 94.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 95..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 98.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 99.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 100. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Rate of turn B.Angle of bank C.True airspeed B X 2..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 3.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 4.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 5..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 6.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 7. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 8. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 9.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 10.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 11.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 14. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 15. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 16. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 17.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 18.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 20.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 21. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 22.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 23.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 24.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 25.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 26.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 27.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 28.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 29.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 30..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 31.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 32.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 33.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 34.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 35.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 36.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 37.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 38.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 40.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 42. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 44. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 45.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 47. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 48.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 49.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 50.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 51. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 52.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 53.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 55.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 56.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 57. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 59.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 60.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 61.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 62. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 63.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 64.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. B X 65.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 66.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 68.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 69.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 70.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 71.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 72. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 74.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 75.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 76.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 77.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 78. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 79.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 80.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 81.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 82. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 83. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 84.．If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 85.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 86.．After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 87.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 88.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 89..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 91.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 92.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 93.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 94.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 95.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 96. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 99.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 2.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 3. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 4.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 5..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 6.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 7.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 8.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 9.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 10.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 11. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 12.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 13.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 15.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 17.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 18.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 19.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 20.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 21.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 22.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 24.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 25.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 26.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 27.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 28.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 29. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 31. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 32. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 33.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 34.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 35.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 36.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 37.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 39.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 40. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 41.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 43. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 45..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 46.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 47..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 48.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 49.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 50.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 51. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 52.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 53.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 54.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 55.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 56. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 57.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 58.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 59.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 60.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 61.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 62.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 63.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 64.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 65.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 66.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 67.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 68. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 69.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 70.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 71.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 72. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 73.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 74.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 75.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 76. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 77.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 78.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC． C.A and B C X 79.. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past three hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 80.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 81. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 83.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 84.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 85..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 86.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 87. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 88.．Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 89. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 90.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 91.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 92. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 94. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 95.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 96.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 97.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 98.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 99.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 100.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 2.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 3.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 4.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 5. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 6.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 7.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 8..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 9.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 10. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 11.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 12.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 13. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 14.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 15.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 16. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 17.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 18.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 20.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 21.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 22.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 23.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 24.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 25.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 26..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 28.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 30.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 31.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 32.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 33..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 34..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 35.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 37. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 38.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 40.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 41. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 42.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 43.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 44.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 45.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 46..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 47.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 48.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 49.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 51.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 52.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 54.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 55.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 56.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 57.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 58.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 59.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 60.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 61.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 62.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 63.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 64.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 65.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 67.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 68..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 69.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 71. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 73. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 74.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 75.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 76.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 77.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 78.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 79.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 80.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 81.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 82.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 83.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 84.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 85.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 86.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 87.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 88.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 89.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 91.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.-Severe porpoising B X 92.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 93. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 94. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 98.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 100. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 2.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 3. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 4. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 5.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 6.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 7.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 9. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 10.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 11.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 12.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 13.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 14.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 15.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 16.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 17.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 18.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 19..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 20.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 22.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 23.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 24. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 25.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 26.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 27.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 28.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 29.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 30.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 31.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 34. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 35.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 36.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 39.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 40.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 41.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 42.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 43.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 44.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 45. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 46.．During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 47.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 48.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 49. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 50.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 51.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 52.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Five C.Three A X 53. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 54.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 55. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots B X 56.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 57.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease. C.Rate and radius will increase. A X 58.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 59.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 60.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 61.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. B X 62.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C X 65.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 66.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 67.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 68. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 69.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 70.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 71.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 72.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 73.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 74.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 75. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 76. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 77.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 78.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 80.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 81.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 82.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 83.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 84.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 85. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 86.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 87.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 88.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 89.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 90. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 91.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 92.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 93.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 95.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 96. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 97.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 98.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 99.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 100.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 2.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 3. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 5.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 6.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 7..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 8.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 9.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 10.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 11.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 12. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 13.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 14.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 15. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 16.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 17.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 18.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 20. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 22..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 23.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 24. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 25.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 26.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. B X 27.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots B X 28.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 29. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 30.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 31.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 32.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 33. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 34.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 35.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 36.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 37.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 39.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 40.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 41.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 42.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 43.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 44.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 45.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 46..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 48.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 50.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 52.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 53.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 54.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 55. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 56..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 57.. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. From A to B then to C B. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D B X 58. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 59.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 61.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 62.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 63. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 64. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 65.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 66.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 67. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 68.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 69.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 71..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 72.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 73.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 74.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 76.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 77. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 78.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 79.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 80.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 81.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 82.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 83.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 84.TCAS I provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 85.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 86.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 87.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 88.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 89. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 90.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 93.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 94. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 95.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 96.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 97.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 98.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 99.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 100.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 2. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 3.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 4.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 5.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 6.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 7.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 8.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 9.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 10.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 11. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 12..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute. A X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 15.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 16.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 17. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 18.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 19.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 20.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 21. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 22.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 23.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 24.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 25. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 28.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 29.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 30. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 31.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 34. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 35.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 36.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 37.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 38.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 40. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 41. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 42.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. B X 43.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 45.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 46.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 47.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 48. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 49.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 50. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 51.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 52. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 53.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 55.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 56. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C X 57.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 58.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 59.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 60..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 61.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 62.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 63.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 64. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 65.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 66.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 68.．Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 69. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 70. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 71.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 72.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 73.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 74.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 75.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 76.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 77.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 78..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 80.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 82.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 83.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 84.. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A.Higher than at low elevation. B.Lower than at low elevation. C.The same as at low elevation. A X 85.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 86.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 87.．The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 88.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 89..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 90.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 91.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 92.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 93.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 94.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 95.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 96.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 97.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 98.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 99.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 2.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 3.. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 4..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 5.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 6.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 7. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 8.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 9.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 10.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 11.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 12.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 13. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 14.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 15.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 16.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 17. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 18. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 19.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 21.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 22.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 23.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 24. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 25.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 26.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 28.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 29.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 30.. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.reached the cruising IAS. B.entered VFR weather conditions. C.received an ATC clearance. C X 31.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 32.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 33. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 35.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 36.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 37. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 38.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 39.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 41. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 42.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 44.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 45. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 46.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 47.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 48.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 49. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 50.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 52.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 53.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 54.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 56.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 57.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 58. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 60.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 62.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 63.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 64.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 65. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 66.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 67.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 68. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 69. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 70.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 71. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 72.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 73..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 75.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 76.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 77.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 78.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 80. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 81. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 82.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 83. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 84.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 85.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 86.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 87.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 89.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 90.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 91.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 92.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 93.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 94.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 95.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 96. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 97. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 99. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 100.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 2.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 3.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 4.. A plane, MH 60°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 5.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 6.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 7.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 8.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 9.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 10.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 11.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 12.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 13. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 14.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 15.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 16.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 17.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 18.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 19. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 20.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 21.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 22..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 24.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 25.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 27. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 28.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 29.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 31.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X 32.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 34..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 35. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 36.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 37.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 38.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 39.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 40.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 41.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 42. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 43.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 45.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 46. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 47.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 48.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 49.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 50.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 51.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 53.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 55.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 56.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 57. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 58.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 59.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 60.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 61. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 64.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 65.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 66. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 67. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 68.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 72.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 75.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 76.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 77. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 78. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 79.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 80..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 81. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 82.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet. B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet. C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet. A X 83.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 84.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 85.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 86.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 87..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 88. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 89.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 90.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Six B.Five C.Two B X 93.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 94.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 95. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 96.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 97. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 98. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 99..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 100.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 2.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 3.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 4.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 6. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is A.upgrade training. B.transition training. C.initial training. C X 7.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 8.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 9.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 11. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 12.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 15..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 17.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 18.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 21.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 22.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 23.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 24.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200°or NW B. 315°or NW C. 135°or SE B X 25.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 26. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 27.．After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 28.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 29. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 30.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 31..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 33.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 34.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 35.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 36. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 37. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 39.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 40.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 41.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 42.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 44.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 45.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 46. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 47.．Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 49.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 50.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 51.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 53. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 54. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 55. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 56.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 58.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 59.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 60.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 61.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 62.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 63.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 64.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 65.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 66.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 67.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 69.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 70.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 71.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 72. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 73. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 74.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 75.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 77.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 78.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 80.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 81.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 82.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 83.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 84.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 85.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 86.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 87..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 88. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 89.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 90. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 91.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 92. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 93. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 95.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 96.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 97.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 98.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 99.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 成绩合计