CBT 03

帅哥

成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 2.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 3.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 4. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 5.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 6.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 7.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 9.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 11.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 12.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 13.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 14.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 15.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 16..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 17..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 18.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. A X 19.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 20.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 22. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 23.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 24.. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 25. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 26.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 27. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 28.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 29. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 30.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 31.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 32.．In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 33.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 34.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 35.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 36.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 37..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 38..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 39.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 40.. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B X 41. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 42.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 44.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC． C.A and B C X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 48.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. B X 49.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 50.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 51..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 53.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 54.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 55.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 57.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 58.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 59.．During the flight, a good leader should A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 62. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?62. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 63. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 64.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 65.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 66.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 67.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 68.. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A.Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. B.Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. C.Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. A X 69.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 70.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 71.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 72.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 73.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. C X 74..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts ? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 75.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 76. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 77.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 78.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 79.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear C X 80.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 81.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 82.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 83.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 84.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 85.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 86.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 87.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 88. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 89.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 90.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 91.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 93.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 94.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 95.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 96.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 97.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 98..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 100.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 成绩合计