CBT 07

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成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 2.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 3.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 4.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 5. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 6.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 7.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 8..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 9.. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 11.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 12.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 13.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 14.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 15.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 16. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 17.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 18..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 19.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 20.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.2Gs. B.3Gs. C.9Gs B X 21.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 23. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 24. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 25. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 26.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 27. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 28.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 29.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 30. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 31.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 32..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 33. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 34.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 35. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 37.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 39..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 40.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 41. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 42.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 43.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet. B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet. C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet. A X 44.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2℃ B.descend 3℃ C. descend 4℃ A X 45.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 46.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 47.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 48.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 49.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 50.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 51.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 52.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 53.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 54.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 55.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 57..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 58.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 59..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 60.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 61.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 62.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 63. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 64..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 65.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 66.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 67.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 68.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 69. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 70.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 71.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 72.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 73.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃ B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃ C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃ A X 75.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 77. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.2 B.3 C.4 B X 78.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 79.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 80.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 81.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. B X 82.. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms C X 83.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 84.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 85. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 86.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 87.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 88.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 91.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 92.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 93.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 94.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 95.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 96.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 97. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 98.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 99.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 100.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 成绩合计 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!