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成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 3. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 5. If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. C X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 7.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 8.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 9.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 10.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 12.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 13.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 14.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 15.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 16.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 17.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 18.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 19. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 20.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 21. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 22.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 23.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 24.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 26.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 27.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 28.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 29.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 30. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 31. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 32. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 33. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 34.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 35. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 36.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 37. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 38.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 39. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 40.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 41.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 42.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 43.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 44. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 45.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 46. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 47..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 48.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 49.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 50.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 51..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 53.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 54.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 55.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 56.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 58. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 59..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 60. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 61.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 62..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 63.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 64.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 65.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 66. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 67.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 68.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 69.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 70.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 71.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 72.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.1,420 pounds, 97 NAM. B.1,440 pounds, 102 NAM. C.1,390 pounds, 92 NAM. A X 73.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 74.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 75.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 76.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 77. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 78.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 80.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 82.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 84.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 85.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change A X 86..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 87.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 88.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 89..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 90.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 91.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 92.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 93.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 94.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 95.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 96.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 97.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 98.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 99.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 100.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 2..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 3. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 4.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 5.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 6.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent? A.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 7.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 8.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 9.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 10. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 11. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 12.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 13.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 14.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 15.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 16.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 17.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 18.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 19. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 20.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 21.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 22. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 23.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 24.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 25.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 26.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 27.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 28.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 29.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 30.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 31.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 32. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 33.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 34.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 35. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 36.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 38.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 39.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 40.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 41.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 42. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 43. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 44.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 45. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 46.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 47.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 49.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 50.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 51.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership B X 52.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 53. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 54.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 55..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 56.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 57. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 59.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 60.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 61.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 62.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 64.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 65. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 66. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 67..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 68. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 69.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 70.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 71..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. A X 72..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 73.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 75.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 76.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 77.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 78.．If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 79.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 80..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 81. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 82.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 83.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 84.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 85. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 86.. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To protect military activities only. B.To protect science tests only. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C X 87.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 88. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 89. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 90.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 91.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 92.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 93.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 94. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 95.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 96.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 97.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 98. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 99.. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. C X 100.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 3.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 4.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 5.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 6.．An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 7.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2,000 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.3000m. B.3,600m. C.2,800m. B X 8.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 9.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 10.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end C.Alternate red and white lights from3,000 feet to the end of the runway B X 11.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 12.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃ B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃ C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃ A X 13.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 14.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 15.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 16. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 17. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 19.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 20.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 21.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 23.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 24.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 25.．If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute. B X 27. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 28.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 29.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 30.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 31.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 32. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 33.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 34. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 35.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 36.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 37.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 38. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 40. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C X 41. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 42.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 43. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 44.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 45. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 46.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 47.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 50.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 51.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 52.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 53.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 54. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 55..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 56.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 57.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 58.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 59.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 60.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 61.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 63.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 64.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 65.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 66. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 67. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 68.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 69.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 70.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 71.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 72.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 73.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 74.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 75.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 76.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 77.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 78. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 79.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 80.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 81.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 83. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 84. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 85.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 86.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. B X 87. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 88.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 89.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 90.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 91..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 92..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 93. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 94.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 95.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 96.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 97.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 99.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 100. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 2.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2℃ B.descend 3℃ C. descend 4℃ A X 3.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 4.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 5.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 6.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 7.．An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 8.How dose deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. C X 9.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 10.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 11.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 12.. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. B.Stop way. C.Obstruction clearance plane. A X 13.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃ B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃ C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃ C X 14.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 16.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 17.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 18. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 19.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 20.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 21.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 22.．If the authority gradient is too steep, A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 24.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 26.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 27.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 28.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 29.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 30. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 31. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 33.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 34.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 35.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 36..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 37. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 39.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 41. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 42.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 43..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. 0000 through 1000. B. 7200 and 7500 series. C. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series. C X 44..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 45.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 46.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 47.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 48.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 49.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 50.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 51.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 52.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 53.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 55..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 56. .Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. C. In turn, on a firs-come, first serve basis. C X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 58..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 59.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 60.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 61.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 63.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 64.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 65.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 66.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 67.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 69.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 70.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 71. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 73.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 74..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 75. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 76. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 78.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 79.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 80. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 82.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 83.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Limiting torque. B X 84.Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have A.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.White inscriptions on a black background C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 85. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 86.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 87. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 88.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 89.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 90.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 91.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 92. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 93.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 94.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 95. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 97.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 98. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 99.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 2.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 3.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 4. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 5.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 6. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 7.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 8.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 9.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 10.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 11.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 13.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 14.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 15.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 16.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 17.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 18. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 19. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,850 feet. C.153 knots and 3,450 feet. C X 21.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 22.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 23. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 24.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 25.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 26.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 27.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 28.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.24 minutes, 109 NAM. B.25 minutes, 125 NAM. C.23 minutes, 118 NAM. C X 29.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 30. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 31..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 32.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 33.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 34.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 35.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 38.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 39. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 41.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 42. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 43.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 44.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 45.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 46. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 47. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 48.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 49.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 50.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 51..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 52. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 53.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 54.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 55.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 56.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 57.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 58.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 59. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 60. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 61. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 62.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 63.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 64.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 65.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 66.. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 67.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 68.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 69. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 70. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 71.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 73.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 74.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 75.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 76. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 77.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 78. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 79.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 80..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 81. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 83.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 84.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 85.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 86.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 87..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 88. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 89.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 90.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 91..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 92.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 93.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃ B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃ C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃ C X 94.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 96.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 97.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 98.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 99..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 100.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200°or NW B. 315°or NW C. 135°or SE B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 2.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 3.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 4.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 5.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 6.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 7. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 8.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 9.．The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. C X 10.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 11.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 12.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 14.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 15..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 16. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 17.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 18.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet. B X 20.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 21.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 22.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 23.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 24. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 25.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 26.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 27. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 28.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 29.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 30.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 31.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 32.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 33. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 34.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 35.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 36.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 37.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 38.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 39. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 40.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 41.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 42.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 43.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 45.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 46.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 48.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 49.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 50.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 51.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 52.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 53.. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway? A.At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. B X 54.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 55.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: ON,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.16,400 feet. B.19,600 feet. C.18,700 feet. A X 57.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 58. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 59.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 60..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 61.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 62.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 63.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 64.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 65.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 66.．In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 67.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 68.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 69.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 70.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 72..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 73.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 74.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 75.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 76.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 77.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 78.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 79.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 80.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 81.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 83.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.In VFR conditions C.In day VFR conditions C X 84.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 85.．During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 86.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 87. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 88.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 89.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,150 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. C X 91. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 92.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 93.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 94. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 95. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 96.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 98.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 100.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. B X 2.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 3.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 4.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 5. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 6. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 7.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 8.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 9.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 10.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 11.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 12.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 13.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 14.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 15. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 16. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 17.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 18. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 20. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 21.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 23.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 24.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 25.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 26.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 27.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 28.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 29.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 31.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 32. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 33. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 35.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 36..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 37.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 38.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 39.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 40..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 41.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 42.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 44.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 45.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 47.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 48.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 49.Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.1MHz B.122.0MHZ C.123.6MHz B X 50. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B.Copy of the flight plan. C.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 51.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 52..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 53.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 54.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: A.Must be adhered to. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. C.Precludes a rejected landing. B X 55.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 56.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 57.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 58.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 59.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 60.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 61.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 62.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 63. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. B.supplemental and domestic. C.flag and commercial. A X 64. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 65..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 66.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 68.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 69. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 70.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 71..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 72.．The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 73.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 74.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 75. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 76.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 77.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 78. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 79.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 80.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. B.12 hours. C.24 hours. A X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 82.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 83. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 84.．After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. A X 85.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 86. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 87. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 88.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 89.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.6 B.7 C.12 C X 91.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 92.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 93.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.By signals fro, self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C X 94.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 95. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 96.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 97.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 98.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 100. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 2.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 3.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 4.. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is . A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 5.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 6. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 7..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 8.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 9.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 10.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 11.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white, on glidepath-red and white; low-red. B.High-white, on glidepath-green; low-red. C.High-white and green, on glidepath-green; low-red. A X 12. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 15. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 16.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 17.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 18.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 19. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. A X 20.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 21. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 22.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.5 hours 3 minutes. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. A X 24. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 25.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 26.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 27. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 28.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 29. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 30.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 31. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 32.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 33.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 34. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 35.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 36.．Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 37. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 38.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 39.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. C X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 41.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 43..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 44.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 45.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A.(接正文 Based on this situation, he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.) cumulonimbus clouds B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds A X 46.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 47.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 48. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 49. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 50.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 51. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 52.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 53.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 54.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 55..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 56.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 57.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 58.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 59..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 60. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 61.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 62.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 63.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 64. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 65.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 66.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 67.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.ARINC B.Any FSS C.Appropriate dispatch office C X 68.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 69. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 70..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 71.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 72.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 73.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 74.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 75.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 76.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 77.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 78. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 79.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 80.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 250 knots B. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 81.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 82.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 83.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 84.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 85. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X 86.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 88. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 89.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC． C.A and B C X 90.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 91.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 92. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 93.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 95.. Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 96.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 97.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 98.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. B X 99.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 2.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 3. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 4.．"Do something quickly!", may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability: C.Impulsivity: C X 5.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 6.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 7.. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. B X 8.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 9.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 10. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 11. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 12..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 13. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 14.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar year, for no more than A.800hours B.900 hours C.1000hours C X 15. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 16.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 17. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 18.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 20.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 22. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 23.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. B X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 26. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 27.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 28.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 29.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 30.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 31.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 32.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 33. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 34. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 35.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. A X 36.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 37. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 38.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.17 hours B.24 hours C.25 hours A X 39..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 40. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 42. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 43. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 44. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 45.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 46.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 47. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 48. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 49.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 50. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 51.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 53.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 54.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 55. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 56.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 57.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 58.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 59.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. B X 60.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 62. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 63. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 64.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 65.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 66. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 67.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.a third-class medical certificate. B.a second-class medical certificate. C.a first-class medical certificate. C X 68.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 69.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 70.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 71. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 72. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 73. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 74.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Clearway. B.Stopway. C.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 75.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 76.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 77. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 78.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 79.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 80.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 81.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 82.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 83. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 84.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-green, low-pulsing red. B.High-pulsing white, on glidepath-steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low-pulsing red. C.High-pulsing white, on course and on glidepath-steady white, off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red; low-pulsing red. B X 85. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 86.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 88.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 89.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 90. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 91. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 92.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 93.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 96.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 97.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 99.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 100.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 2.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 3.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 4.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 5. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway, These lines are A.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 6.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 7..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 8. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 9.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.several headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria A X 10.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind. A X 11.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 12.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.VS. B.VS1. C.VSO. B X 13.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 14.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 15.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 16.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 17.. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip. C X 18.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 20.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 21.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 22.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 24..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 25.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 40o, and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.17,000 pounds. B.20,800 pounds. C.22,300 pounds. B X 28.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 29.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 30. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 31.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. A X 32.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 34. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 35.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC． C.A and B C X 36. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 37.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 113,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. A X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 39.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 40.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 41.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 42..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 44.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.9,800 pounds. B.11,200 pounds. C.17,000 pounds. B X 45. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 46..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 47.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 48.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 49.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 50.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 51.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 52.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 53..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 54.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 56. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 57.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. B X 58. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 59.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 60. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 62.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B.pilots, navigators, flight engineers and batmen, but do not include flight attendants. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 63.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 64.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 65. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.difference training. B.transition training. C.upgrade training. B X 66.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 67.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 68. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 69.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 70.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 72. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 73.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 75.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 76.．Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 77.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 78. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 80.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 81.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 83.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 84.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 85. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 86.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 87.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 88.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 89.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 90.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 91.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 92.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 93. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 94.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 95.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 97.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 98.. In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE A X 99.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 100.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 成绩合计