CPL Revision Questions3

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CPL Revision Questions 1. Which statement best describes the information contained in a TTF? A. It reports current weather conditions at the aerodrome of origin. B. It reports current weather conditions at the aerodrome of origin and appends a statement of the trend expected in the hour. C. It reports current weather conditions at the aerodrome of origin and appends a statement of the trend expected in the next three hours. D. It reports current weather conditions at the aerodrome of origin and appends a statement of the trend expected in the next six hours. 2. What is correct regarding the meaning of the term CAVOK in respect of visibility at an aerodrome? A. visibility is 10km or more B. visibility is 10km or more with no shallow fog. C. visibility is 10km or more over the whole horizon with no shallow fog. D. visibility is 10km or more over at least half the horizon, with no shallow fog. 3. Thunderstorms occur in two fundamental types- frontal and air mass. Which of the following statements correctly describes differences between frontal and air mass thunderstorms? A. air mass storms are more widely spaced than frontal storms, and have lower bases. B. strong down draughts close to the ground are more likely to be found frontal storms. C. an individual frontal storms is likely to be less than an air mass storm. D. hail is more likely to be encountered in an air mass storm than in a frontal storm. 4. Which set of conditions would be most favourable for the formation of a thick radiation fog overnight? A. clear sky, temperature close to 0ºC, calm. B. overcast, high relative humidity, light wind. C. clear sky, high relative humidity, light wind. D. clear sky , high relative humidity, calm. 5. Which conditions would be most favourable for the formation of a low level jet stream across southern Queensland? A. late afternoon, clear sky, a HIGH centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range. B. late evening, high overcast, a LOW centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range. C. early morning, clear sky, a HIGH centred to he west of the Great Dividing Range. D. midday, towering cumulus beginning to develop, a LOW centred to the east of the Great Dividing Range. 6. What is the meaning of the term “dry adiabatic lapse rate”? A. the rate at which the temperature of completely dry air changes as a parcel of air ascends or descends through the atmosphere. It is approximately 3ºc per 1000’ B. the rate at which the temperature of unsaturated air changes as a parcel of air ascends or descends through the atmosphere. It is approximately 3ºC per 1000’ C. the rate at which the temperature of completely dry air changes as a parcel of air ascends or descends through the atmosphere. It is approximatley1.5Cº per 1000’ D. the rate at which the temperature of unsaturated air changes as a parcel of air ascends or descends through the atmosphere. It is approximately 1.5ºC per 1000’ 7. Frontal fog is most likely to occur in conjunction with: A. a cold front in Tasmania B. a warm front in Tasmania C. advection fog D. fine weather above the fog layer 8. What will increase when you climb through a subsidence inversion? A. visibility B. turbulence C. cloud D. dew point temp 9. In mist the relative humidity is:- A. near 100% and the visibility below 1km B. at 100% and the visibility below 1km C. near 100% and the visibility above 1km D. at 100% and the visibility above 1km 10. Tropical cyclones in the Australian region are most likely to develop and intensify: A. over the sea near the equator B. over the land near the equator C. over the sea at about 15ºC D. over the land at about 15ºC 11. In relation to abbreviations used in ARFOR’s: A. INC means increasing B. MAR means marginal C. MON means to leeward of mountains D. INC means in cloud 12. Dust storms: A. only ever occur in summer B. are always associated with fast moving cold fronts C. are associated with strong surface wind speeds D. never occur within a high-pressure system 13. In the Australian region the months of greatest cyclone activity are: A. Nov and Dec B. Jan, Feb and Mar C. Mar and April D. Sept and Oct 14. In-flight encounters with freezing rain or drizzle are likely: A. ahead of a warm front B. ahead of a cold front C. behind a warm front D. ahead and behind a warm front 15. Lighting discharge’s from Cb are most likely: A. to occur a short time prior to the first precipitation falling from the cloud. B. during the mature stage C. during the developing stage D. during the dissipating stage 16. A rising parcel of air: A. warms at a lower rate on passing through the condensation level B. cools at one constant rate from ground level upwards C. cools at a lower rate passing through the condensation level D. cools at a lower rate on passing through the condensation level. 17. Virga is most likely to be seen falling from: A. Nimbostratus B. Altocumulus C. Cumulus D. Altostratus 18. Which of the following is conducive to the formation of a Katabatic wind? A. intensive daytime heating B. extensive low-level cloud C. a high SALR value D. a surface inversion 19. When flying over a mountain ridge in strong wind conditions, the most severe turbulence is likely to be encountered: A. upwind from the ridge B. leeward of the ridge C. directly above the ridge D. directly beneath the wave trough 20. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is experiencing port drift, but no head or tail wind component. In this case a low pressure lies: A. ahead of the aircraft B. behind the aircraft C. to the left of the aircraft D. to the right of the aircraft 21. Coldstream’s advecting over South Eastern Australia are usually unstable because:- A. underlying ocean surfaces are colder than the stream B. underlying land areas are warmer than the stream C. the upper troposphere becomes warmer towards the equator D. reinforcing sea breezes make the air masses lower layers colder. 22. The transition zone between two air masses of different density is referred to as a: A. trough B. friction layer C. front D. turbulence zone 23. When flying on the leeward side of a mountain range, which of the following indicators is always present with fully developed mountain wave activity: A. a rapidly changing altimeter reading B. a rapidly changing altimeter reading, plus lenticular cloud C. a rapidly changing altimeter reading, plus lenticular cloud severe turbulence D. a rapidly changing altimeter reading, plus serve turbulence 24. Subsidence of the air from the middle and upper troposphere is associated with: A. highs B. lows C. cols D. troughs 25. A SPECI is issued when: A. conditions are forecasted to fluctuate about or below specified criteria B. conditions are below IFR minima C. conditions are reported to fluctuate about or below specified criteria D. conditions are below VFR minima 26. Which of the following temperatures is most likely to determine the strength of a sea breeze at a coastal aerodrome? A. overnight land temperature minima B. overnight sea temperature minima C. daytime land temperature maxima D. daytime sea temperature maximal 27. With marked mountain wave activity: A. lenticular cloud is always present B. lenticular and stratiform “cap” cloud is always present C. cumuliform rotor cloud is always present D. the sky may be cloud free 28. The freezing level is usually at a higher level in: A. northerly streams B. easterly streams C. southerly streams D. westerly streams 29. Showers are most likely to fall from: A. Ns B. Cu C. As D. Sc 30. During descent after encountering icing, the IAS is found under-read by an increasing amount, this could: A. be caused by an ice blocked Pitot B. be caused by and ice blocked static tube C. be caused by an ice blocked static and Pitot tube D. never be caused by icing 31. Rime ice (build-up) may be dangerous because it alters the aerofoil profile and: A. it adds considerable weight to the airframe B. is more difficult than clear ice to remove C. spreads back over the aerofoil section D. may block the Pitot tube 32. Clear icing is most likely to form in: A. Cb cloud B. Ac cloud C. Sc cloud D. large Cu 33. Precipitation lasting for periods of up to 50 minutes in any 1 hour period usually with sky remaining overcast is classified as: A. continuous precipitation B. rain or snow showers C. intermittent precipitation D. cyclonic rainfall 34. Dew point temperature is higher when: A. air is very dry B. air is very moist C. the DALR is relatively high D. the SALR nears DALR values 35. Noticeable changes in performance may occur on climbing through inversions because the aircraft is ascending to a layer of the atmosphere where: A. air temperature is higher and pressure is higher B. air temperature is higher and pressure is lower C. air temperature is lower and pressure is higher D. air temperature is lower and pressure is lower 36. The low level jet or “sunrise wind”: A. is usually associated with a low pressure system B. occurs most commonly in summer C. forms over land D. is mostly found at a height of 50’ 37. January rainfall in Darwin is the highest for any month of the year, this is because: A. the moist unstable northeast monsoon prevails B. moist tropical maritime southeast trades prevail C. strong moist sea breezes prevail on most days D. the equatorial trough is centred at about 5ºS, and the moist unstable northwest monsoon prevails 38. Rapid freezing of small supercooled water droplets produces: A. hail B. rime ice C. hoar frost D. clear ice 39. In undulating terrain, fog often collects in valleys because: A. of the normal temperature lapse rate with height B. saturated air is denser and thus heavier than unsaturated air C. gradient winds cannot reach the valley floor to disperse it D. the coldest air descends the slopes at night 40. Through northern Australia during the “wet season” winds are predominantly from the: A. north east B. west to northwest C. south east D. east to northeast 41. The tropopause is: A. where the lapse rate becomes negative at about 14,000’ B. the region 8 to 16km above the earth’s surface, at which a marked change in temperature lapse rate is apparent C. the portion of the earth’s atmosphere nearest the surface in which most weather occurs D. a region in the upper stratosphere where temperature no longer decreases with height. 42. The wind flows approximately parallel tot eh isobars and not across them: A. only in the southern hemisphere B. when there is a weak pressure gradient C. near the equator D. because of the deviating force of the earth’s rotation 43. A sea breeze is a A. local offshore wind due to convection B. local on-shore wind due to convection C. local on-shore wind due to evening cooling D. gradient on-shore wind 44. When the dry bulb temperature and the dew point temperature have the same value: A. the temperature must be above freezing B. the atmosphere is stable C. the atmosphere is unstable D. the relative humidity is 100% 45. It is observed that continuous rain is falling. The cloud type from which the rain is falling is: A. cumulus B. stratus C. nimbostratus D. cirrostratus 46. A cloud formed by local heating of the earth’s surface would be: A. cumulus B. stratus C. nimbostratus D. cirrostratus 47. If you fly East to West through a cold front in the southern hemisphere: A. the wind direction will change from a northwesterly to a south westerly B. the wind direction will change from a southwesterly to a north westerly C. the wind direction will veer D. the wind direction will not change direction 48. With the passage of a warm front in the southern hemisphere: A. the wind veers, the temperature rises and the pressure fall decreases B. the wind backs, the temperature falls and the pressure falls more rapidly C. the wind backs, the temperature rises and the pressure fall decreases D. the wind veers, the temperature rises and the pressure rises 49. The north-west monsoon: A. only affects the north-eastern part of Australia B. brings unstable moist air to Darwin C. brings dry fine weather to Darwin D. brings winter rain to Darwin 50. The combination of atmospheric conditions necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are: A. stable air, high moisture content and a lifting action B. a cold surface, mountainous terrain and a low relative humidity C. unstable air, high moisture content an a lifting action D. warm, stable air flowing over a cold surface 51. You are planning to conduct a flight in VFR from an aerodrome, departing at about last light and to return there approximately 3 hrs later. Fog is forecast to begin developing there at about the time of your ETA. Which of the following conditions observed at the time of your departure, would tend to confirm the likelihood that the forecast will be correct? A. a heavy dew began to form immediately after sunset B . the surface wind dropped from about 12kt to 5kt C . a layer of low cloud invaded the sky from the nearby coastline D. the surface wind speed increased from 5kt to about 10kt 52. You are flying below nimbostratus cloud at an altitude of 2000’ with an OAT of +8C. The cloud base above you is at 3000’. At what altitude would you expect to find the most serve airframe icing? A. 3000’ B. 5000’ C. 7000’ D. 15000’ 53. Conditions to enhance the development of tropical cyclone would be: A. a monsoonal airflow over a hot tropical land mass B. an area of low pressure within five degrees of the equator C. an area of low pressure over a tropical ocean D. strong convergence of the trade wind systems 54. The main hazard to aircraft presented by dust storms is that they cause: A. widespread areas of reduced visibility up to a relatively high altitude B. widespread areas of visibility close to the surface C. engine damage by ingestion of a coarse abrasive particles D. reduction of an in-flight visibility by abrasion of the aircraft’s windscreen 55. Noticeable changes in performance may occur on climbing through inversions because the aircraft is ascending to a region of the atmosphere where: A. the temperature is higher and the pressure higher B. the temperature is higher and the pressure lower C. the temperature is lower and the pressure higher D. the temperature is lower and the pressure lower 56. Which of the following conditions are required for hoar frost to form on an aircraft? A. Ambient air temperature below freezing B. Presence of fog or stratus cloud C. Presence of supercooled water droplets D. Skin temperature below freezing 57. When encountering airframe ice in an aircraft not fitted with anti- icing equipment, the pilot’s immediate reaction should be to: A. execute a 180 turn B. descend below the freezing level C. climb until the temperature is about –15C D. increase speed 58. One reason that clear ice is considered more hazardous to aircraft than rime ice is because: A. it is more likely to obscure the windscreen B. it causes a greater reduction in aerodynamic efficiency C. it is more likely to block engine air intakes D. it is more difficult to dislodge 59. Which of the following statements correctly describes the flying conditions likely to be experienced in stratocumulus cloud? A. moderate clear icing above the freezing level B. nil turbulence C. occasional rime icing above the freezing level D. moderate rain showers 60. When flying near a mountain ridge in strong winds, the worst turbulence is likely to be experienced: A. upwind from the ridge B. directly above the ridge C. equally in all areas D. in the lee of the ridge 61. TAF BNA 131845UTC 2008 18015KT 9999 RA/RASH FEW010 SCT020 OVC100 TEMPO 2002 3000 + RA 5ST010 INTER 0208 3000 BKN 010 T10 12 16 17 Q1023 1024 1022 1020 Refer to the TAF above. The visibility forecast for an arrival at 2300 UTC is A. 10 km or better B. 3000m C. 10 km or better, with reductions to 3000m for periods of 30 mins or more but less than one hour D. 10km or better, with reductions to 3000m periods of less than 30 mins 62. Refer to the TAF above. The visibility forecast for an arrival at 0220 UTC is A. 10km or better B. 3000m C. 10 km or better, with reductions to 3000m for periods of 30mins or more but less than one hour D. 10km or better, with reductions to 3000m for periods of less than 30 mins 63. TAF KRY 061830 UTC 2008 12005KT 9999 BKN 008 BKN 100 FM 23 RASH BKN 030 T11 13 18 20 Q1023 1025 1024 1022 Refer to the above TAF. Rain showers are forecast A. from 2000 to 0800 B. between 2300 and 2400 C. from 2300 to the end of the forecast validity period D. from 2000 to 2300 TAF CAS 120045UTC 2008 18010KT 6000 + RA BKN010 OVC100 FM 01 + RASH BKN020 INTER 0108 3000 BKN 008 T10 12 16 17 Q1025 1026 1025 1022 64. Refer the above TAF. The visibility forecast for an aircraft arriving at 0230 is A. 3000 m B. 6000 m C. either 3000m or 6000m or between these values D. less than 3000 m 65. The lowest cloud forecast for an arrival at 2100 is A. between 4-6 octas at 1000ft AGL B. between 5-7 octas at 1000ft AMSL C. between 5-7 octas at 1000 ft AGL D. between 4-6 ocats at 1000 ft AMSL 66. A VFR aircraft that plans to arrive at CAS at 0040 UTC. Which of the following applies to its arrival? A. no alternate will be required for a VFR aircraft B. flight fuel to proceed to an alternate should be carried C. 30 minutes holding fuel should be carried D. flight fuel to proceed to an alternate or 30 mins holding fuel should be carried. TAF ABBN0300UTC 024 16015KT 9999 – RASH SCT025 SCT040 T17 18 19 19 Q1020 1018 1017 1017 METAR/TTF ABBN 0300UTC 180209999- RASH BKN 0230 18/16 Q1017 NOSIG 67. Consider the meteorological message above. The cloud amount, type and height forecast for an aircraft arriving at ABBN at 0530 is A. 3-4 octas at 2500 ft AGL B. 3-4 octas at 4000 ft AGL C. 5-7 octas at 2000 ft AGL D. 3-4 octas at 2500 ft AMSL 68. Consider the meteorological message above. The lowest cloud base forecast for an arrival at ABBN at 0700 is: A. 2000 ft AGL B. 2500 ft AGL C. 4000 ft AGL D. 2000 ft AGL 69. The term NOSIG indicates A. no significant weather is expected during the validity period of the TAF B. no significant change is expected in the weather reported in the METAR for the duration of the TAF period C. the weather described in the METAR is expected to remain unchanged for the next three hours D. the METAR/TTF message has no significance while the TAF remains current TAF TWB 111840UTC 2008 09015KT 9999 – RA BKN008 FM 23 9999 BKN025 T10 12 16 17 Q1025 1025 1024 1023 70. Consider the TAF above. As 0500 the QNH at TWB is forecast to be A. 1025 B. 1023 C. 1024 D. 1012 71. At 0200 the temperature at TWB is forecast to be A. 10C B. 12C C. 16C D 17C