FAA真题航线真题

帅哥发表于 2008-12-31 09:40:45

1．If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained?ffice:office" /><?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com<img src=" /><o:p></o:p>
A．ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be provided in the FSS broadcast.<o:p></o:p>
B．By contacting a weather watch station.<o:p></o:p>
C．By contacting the nearest AFSS.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
2. On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using<o:p></o:p>
A．a station circle at the aircraft location.<o:p></o:p>
B．a square at the aircraft location.<o:p></o:p>
C．a star at the aircraft location.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
3. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,<o:p></o:p>
A．ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD.<o:p></o:p>
B．ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it.<o:p></o:p>
C．ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
4. What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?<o:p></o:p>
A．It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.<o:p></o:p>
B．It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.<o:p></o:p>
<o:p> </o:p>
C．It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
5．Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades<o:p></o:p>
A．can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.<o:p></o:p>
B．could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power.<o:p></o:p>
C．can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
6．What is the single source reference that contains information regarding volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region?<o:p></o:p>
A．Weather Depiction Chart.<o:p></o:p>
B．In-Flight Weather Advisories.<o:p></o:p>
C．Area Forecast.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
7．Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?<o:p></o:p>
A．Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.<o:p></o:p>
B．Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.<o:p></o:p>
C．Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
<o:p> </o:p>
8．Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters “V(C).?When V(C) appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of<o:p></o:p>
A．a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.<o:p></o:p>
B．a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex.<o:p></o:p>
C．10 miles of the station originating the forecast.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
9．Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids<o:p></o:p>
A．need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.<o:p></o:p>
B．must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.<o:p></o:p>
C．must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
10．Where are jetstreams normally located?<o:p></o:p>
A．In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.<o:p></o:p>
B．At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.<o:p></o:p>
C．In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
11．A strong wind shear can be expected<o:p></o:p>
A．on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.<o:p></o:p>
B．where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5?longitude.<o:p></o:p>
C．if the 5°C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer together.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
12．What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?<o:p></o:p>
A．Hot<o:p></o:p>
B．Warm<o:p></o:p>
C．Cold<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
13．Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?<o:p></o:p>
A．Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front.<o:p></o:p>
B．Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.<o:p></o:p>
C．Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
14．On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in the analysis, over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation plotted using<o:p></o:p>
A．a station circle at the cloud top location.<o:p></o:p>
B．a square at the cloud top location.<o:p></o:p>
C．a star at the cloud top location.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
15．When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least<o:p></o:p>
A．1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.<o:p></o:p>
B．2,500 feet.<o:p></o:p>
C．500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
16．At what time are current AIRMETs broadcast in their entirety by the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS)?<o:p></o:p>
A．15 and 45 minutes after the hour during the first hour after issuance, and upon receipt.<o:p></o:p>
B．Every 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.<o:p></o:p>
C．There is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of Inflight Weather Advisories.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
17．Vertical wind shear can be determined directly from the dashed lines on the tropopause data chart. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is<o:p></o:p>
A．4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet.<o:p></o:p>
B．6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.<o:p></o:p>
C．greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
18．Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?<o:p></o:p>
A．Apply heated Type 2 fluid.<o:p></o:p>
B．Decrease the water content.<o:p></o:p>
C．Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
19．What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission?<o:p></o:p>
“SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE. <o:p></o:p>
A．A downburst is located at the center of the airport.<o:p></o:p>
B．Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway.<o:p></o:p>
C．There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
20．The ffice:smarttags" /><?xml:namespace prefix = st1 ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com<img src=" /><st1:Street w:st="on"><st1:address w:st="on">TWEB Route</st1:address></st1:Street> Forecasts and Synopses are issued by the Weather Service Forecast Offices (WSFOs) four times per day according to time zone. The TWEB forecast is valid for a/an<o:p></o:p>
A．8-hour period.<o:p></o:p>
B．12-hour period.<o:p></o:p>
C．15-hour period.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
21．Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?<o:p></o:p>
A．Turbulence and structural icing.<o:p></o:p>
B．Jetstream-type winds and icing.<o:p></o:p>
C．Level of the tropopause and turbulence.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
22．Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?<o:p></o:p>
A．It is more complicated.<o:p></o:p>
B．The holding time is increased.<o:p></o:p>
C．More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
23．Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?<o:p></o:p>
A．Upper winds blowing across the front.<o:p></o:p>
B．Upper low located directly over the surface low.<o:p></o:p>
C．The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
24．What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?<o:p></o:p>
A．The air is unstable.<o:p></o:p>
B．A temperature inversion exists.<o:p></o:p>
C．The air is stable.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
25．Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The contours depict<o:p></o:p>
A．ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft.<o:p></o:p>
B．highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface.<o:p></o:p>
C．highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
26．How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart?<o:p></o:p>
A．SLGT within cross-hatched areas.<o:p></o:p>
B．APCHG within any area.<o:p></o:p>
C．SVR within any area.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
27What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Caribbean or <st1:place w:st="on">Gulf of Mexico</st1:place> region?<o:p></o:p>
A．Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.<o:p></o:p>
B．Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.<o:p></o:p>
C．Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over land.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
28．Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?<o:p></o:p>
A．Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.<o:p></o:p>
B．Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface.<o:p></o:p>
C．Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
29．Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing<o:p></o:p>
A．provide ice protection during flight.<o:p></o:p>
B．are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.<o:p></o:p>
C．on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
30．What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?<o:p></o:p>
A．Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and the Area Forecast.<o:p></o:p>
B．PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.<o:p></o:p>
C．PIREPs, AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
31．Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to<o:p></o:p>
A．-20°F ambient temperature.<o:p></o:p>
B．+32°F outside temperature or below.<o:p></o:p>
C．a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
32．What conditions are indicated on a Weather Depiction Chart?<o:p></o:p>
A．Actual sky cover, visibility restrictions, and type of precipitation at reporting stations.<o:p></o:p>
B．Forecast ceilings and visibilities over a large geographic area.<o:p></o:p>
C．Actual en route weather conditions between reporting stations.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>

帅哥发表于 2008-12-31 09:41:22

1．Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the<?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" /><o:p></o:p>
A.aircraft dispatcher.<o:p></o:p>
B. flight navigator.<o:p></o:p>
C. pilot-in-command.<o:p></o:p>
C.<o:p></o:p>
2. The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is<o:p></o:p>
A. 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2.<o:p></o:p>
B. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2.<o:p></o:p>
C. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.<o:p></o:p>
C.<o:p></o:p>
3. Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?<o:p></o:p>
A.The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility.<o:p></o:p>
B.The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.<o:p></o:p>
C.The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.<o:p></o:p>
B. <o:p></o:p>
4.What is the maximum number of degrees between the final approach course and the runway centerline for a LORAN RNAV approach to be considered a straight-in approach?<o:p></o:p>
A.5<o:p></o:p>
B.10<o:p></o:p>
C.30<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
5. What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.No specific certification but a two-way radio.<o:p></o:p>
B.At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio.<o:p></o:p>
C.At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.<o:p></o:p>
A.<o:p></o:p>
6.A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the <?xml:namespace prefix = st1 ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:smarttags" /><st1:place w:st="on"><st1:country-region w:st="on">United States</st1:country-region></st1:place> is called<o:p></o:p>
A.Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA).<o:p></o:p>
B.Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA).<o:p></o:p>
C.Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
7.When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed<o:p></o:p>
A.1 minute.<o:p></o:p>
B.1-1/2 minutes.<o:p></o:p>
C.1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
8. The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are<o:p></o:p>
A.those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive.<o:p></o:p>
B.those specified in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.<o:p></o:p>
C.those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
9. What action should the pilot take when “gate hold?procedures are in effect?<o:p></o:p>
A.Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.<o:p></o:p>
B.Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance.<o:p></o:p>
C.Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance prior to leaving the parking area.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
10. What is the pilot’s responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?<o:p></o:p>
A.Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.<o:p></o:p>
B.If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient.<o:p></o:p>
C.Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
11.What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain “VFR on Top?<o:p></o:p>
A.May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers.<o:p></o:p>
B.Must maintain VFR clearance above or below.<o:p></o:p>
C.May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
12. What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when “gate hold?procedures are in effect?<o:p></o:p>
A.They are given preference for departure over other aircraft.<o:p></o:p>
B.They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block.<o:p></o:p>
C.They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
13.When a composite flight plan indicates VFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?<o:p></o:p>
A．The VFR portion is automatically canceled and the IFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports IFR conditions.<o:p></o:p>
B．The pilot should advise ATC to cancel VFR and activate the IFR portion of the flight.<o:p></o:p>
C．The pilot should close the VFR portion with the nearest FSS and request the IFR clearance at least 5 minutes prior to IFR.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
14.An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be<o:p></o:p>
A.2 miles or greater.<o:p></o:p>
B.at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.<o:p></o:p>
C.3 miles.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
15.While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?<o:p></o:p>
A.Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.<o:p></o:p>
B.When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.<o:p></o:p>
C.Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
16. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?<o:p></o:p>
A.1,000 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
B.1,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
C.5,000 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
17.If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies “NO PT,?the pilot should<o:p></o:p>
A.advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed.<o:p></o:p>
B.not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC.<o:p></o:p>
C.execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
18．At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.1,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
B.2,000 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
C.2,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
19．When a composite flight plan indicates IFR for the first portion of the flight, what is the procedure for the transition?<o:p></o:p>
A．The IFR portion is automatically canceled and the VFR portion is automatically activated when the pilot reports VFR conditions.<o:p></o:p>
B．The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and contact the nearest FSS to activate the VFR portion.<o:p></o:p>
C．The pilot should advise ATC to cancel the IFR portion and activate the VFR portion.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
20.What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.Two-way communications.<o:p></o:p>
B.Two-way communications and transponder.<o:p></o:p>
C.Transponder and DME.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
21．When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?<o:p></o:p>
A.At the published DH.<o:p></o:p>
B.At the MDA published or a circling approach.<o:p></o:p>
C.As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
22．Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?<o:p></o:p>
A.If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment.<o:p></o:p>
B.When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF.<o:p></o:p>
C.When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
23.When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?<o:p></o:p>
A.List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate.<o:p></o:p>
B.Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use.<o:p></o:p>
C.List at least one additional alternate airport.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
24．Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?<o:p></o:p>
A.IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.<o:p></o:p>
B.IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.<o:p></o:p>
C.IFR Planning Chart.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
25．Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff<o:p></o:p>
A.from a runway intersection.<o:p></o:p>
B.from a runway intersection, only at night.<o:p></o:p>
C.from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
26What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to “VERIFY 9,000?and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?<o:p></o:p>
A.Immediately climb to 9,000.<o:p></o:p>
B.Report climbing to 9,000.<o:p></o:p>
C.Report maintaining 8,000.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
27.If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?<o:p></o:p>
A.Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.<o:p></o:p>
B.Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach.<o:p></o:p>
C.Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
28What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance “cleared as filed?include?<o:p></o:p>
A.Clearance limit and en route altitude.<o:p></o:p>
B.Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.<o:p></o:p>
C.Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
29.How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?<o:p></o:p>
A.The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix.<o:p></o:p>
B.All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.<o:p></o:p>
C.The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
30.To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word “LIFEGUARD?should be entered in which section of the flight plan?<o:p></o:p>
A.Aircraft type/special equipment block.<o:p></o:p>
B.Pilot’s name and address block.<o:p></o:p>
C.Remarks block.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
31．What is the purpose of the term “hold for release?when included in an IFR clearance?<o:p></o:p>
A.A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions.<o:p></o:p>
B.When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released.<o:p></o:p>
C.Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
32.How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?<o:p></o:p>
A.A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.<o:p></o:p>
B.A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used.<o:p></o:p>
C.A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
33.In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
B.Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
C.Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
34.What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?<o:p></o:p>
A.Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.<o:p></o:p>
B.Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.<o:p></o:p>
C.Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
35．What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?<o:p></o:p>
A.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance.<o:p></o:p>
B.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup.<o:p></o:p>
C.Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
36.When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?<o:p></o:p>
A.Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.<o:p></o:p>
B.If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.<o:p></o:p>
C.If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
37.Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?<o:p></o:p>
A．Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs.<o:p></o:p>
B．Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC.<o:p></o:p>
C．Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
38．When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?<o:p></o:p>
A.At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible.<o:p></o:p>
B.When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible.<o:p></o:p>
C.At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
39.What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot<o:p></o:p>
A．may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.<o:p></o:p>
B．must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.<o:p></o:p>
C．may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
40.When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?<o:p></o:p>
A.Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.<o:p></o:p>
B.When aligned on the final approach course.<o:p></o:p>
C.When cleared for the approach.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
41.When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?<o:p></o:p>
A.At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.<o:p></o:p>
B.As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.<o:p></o:p>
C.At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
42.When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?<o:p></o:p>
A.3?per second or 25?bank, whichever is less.<o:p></o:p>
B.3?per second or 30?bank, whichever is less.<o:p></o:p>
C.1-1/2?per second or 25?bank, whichever is less.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
43.What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established.<o:p></o:p>
B.Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area.<o:p></o:p>
C.Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
44Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?<o:p></o:p>
A.Upon approval of ATC.<o:p></o:p>
B.Upon approval of the owner.<o:p></o:p>
C.Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
45.Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?<o:p></o:p>
A.Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.<o:p></o:p>
B.Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach.<o:p></o:p>
C.Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
46.What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.<o:p></o:p>
B.Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.<o:p></o:p>
C.Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
47.What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized “VFR on Top?<o:p></o:p>
A.The same afforded all IFR flights.<o:p></o:p>
B.3 miles horizontally instead of 5.<o:p></o:p>
C.Traffic advisories only.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
48．What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?<o:p></o:p>
A.Assume lost communications and continue as planned.<o:p></o:p>
B.Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received.<o:p></o:p>
C.Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
49.Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?<o:p></o:p>
A.Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA.<o:p></o:p>
B.Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen.<o:p></o:p>
C.The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
50.When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?<o:p></o:p>
A．Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM.<o:p></o:p>
B．Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.<o:p></o:p>
C．Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
51.Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain “VFR on Top?<o:p></o:p>
A.Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions.<o:p></o:p>
B.Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.<o:p></o:p>
C.Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
52.Which IFR fix(es) should be entered on a composite flight plan?<o:p></o:p>
A.All compulsory reporting points en route.<o:p></o:p>
B.The VORs that define the IFR portion of the flight.<o:p></o:p>
C.The fix where the IFR portion is to be terminated.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
53.In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?<o:p></o:p>
A.“Vectors?provided for navigational guidance or “Pilot NAV?with courses the pilot is responsible to follow.<o:p></o:p>
B.“Vectors?and “Pilot NAV?for pilots to use at their discretion.<o:p></o:p>
C.Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
54. What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace.<o:p></o:p>
B.Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace.<o:p></o:p>
C.Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
55.At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A.180 knots.<o:p></o:p>
B.200 knots.<o:p></o:p>
C.230 knots.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>
56. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?<o:p></o:p>
A.265 knots.<o:p></o:p>
B.250 knots.<o:p></o:p>
C.230knots.<o:p></o:p>
A<o:p></o:p>
57. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?<o:p></o:p>
A．156 knots.<o:p></o:p>
B．180 knots.<o:p></o:p>
C．200knots.<o:p></o:p>
C<o:p></o:p>
58.What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?<o:p></o:p>
A.288 knots.<o:p></o:p>
B.250knots.<o:p></o:p>
C.230knots.<o:p></o:p>
B<o:p></o:p>

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