CBT C

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成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 2.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 3.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 4. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 5. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 6. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 7. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 9.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 10.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 11.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 13.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 14. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 15.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 16.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 17.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 19. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 20.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 21.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 23. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 24. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 25.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 26.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 27.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 28. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 29..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200-foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 31.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 32.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 34.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 35.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 36.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 37..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 38.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 39.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 40.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 41.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach. B X 42.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 43.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 44. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 45.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 46. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 47.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 48.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 49.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 50.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 51.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 52.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 53.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 54.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 55.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 56.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 58.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 59. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 60.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 61.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 62.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 63.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 64.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 65. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 66.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 67.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 68.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 69.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 70.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 71.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 72. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 73.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 74.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 75. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 76.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 77.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 78..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 79.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 80.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 81.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 83.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 84.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 85.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 86.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 88.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 89.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 90.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 92.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 94.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 95. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 97.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 98.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 99.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 2. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 3.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 4.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 5.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 6. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 7.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 8.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 9.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 10. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 11.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 12.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 13.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 14. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.(续考题正文an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 15. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 16.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 17.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 19. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 20.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 21. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 22.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 23.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 24.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 27.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 28.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 29.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 30.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 31.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 32.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 33.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 34. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 35.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 37.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 38.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 39..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 40. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 41.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 42. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 43.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 44.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 45.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 46.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 47.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 49. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 50.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 51.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 53.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 56..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 57.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 58.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 59.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 60.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 62. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 65.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 67.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 68.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 70. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 71.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 72.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 73..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 74. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 75..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 76. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 77.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 78.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 80.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 81.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 82.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 83.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 85.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. B X 86.. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 87.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 88..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 89.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 90.．In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C.autokinesis. C X 91. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 92.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 93.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 94.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 95.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 97.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. C. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%, whichever is greater. A X 98.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 99.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 100.. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce . A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.What affects indicated stall speed? A. Weight, load factor, and power B. Load factor , angle of attack ,and power C. Angle of attack, weight, and airspeed A X 2.. Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.stratonimbus, light rain, poor visibility A X 3.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 4.．In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. A X 5.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 6. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B X 7.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 8.. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. A X 9.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 10.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 11.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 12.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 14. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 15.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 16..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 17. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. A X 18.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 19.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 20.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 21. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B.Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 23.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 24.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 25. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 26.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes, 118 NAM. B.26 minutes, 125 NAM. C.25 minutes, 118 NAM. B X 27.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 28.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 29.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 30.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 31.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 32.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 33.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 34. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 35.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 36.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 37.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 38. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 39.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 42.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 43.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 44..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 45. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 47.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 48.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 49. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 50.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 51.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 53.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC． C.A and B C X 54.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 55.. (According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃ B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃ C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃ C X 56..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 57.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 58.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C.Only one INDS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C X 59.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 61.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(续正文，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 62.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 63.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. A X 64. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 65.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Porpoise. B.Wingover. C.Dutch roll C X 66. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 67. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 69.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 70.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 71.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 72..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 73. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.12 months. B.90 days. C.6 months. C X 74.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. C X 75.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 76.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 77.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 78.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 79. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 80.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 81.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 83. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 85. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 86.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 87. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 88.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 90.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 91.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 92.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 93. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 94.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 95.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 96. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 97.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 99. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 100.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 2.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 3.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 4.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 5.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 6.. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. C X 7.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 9.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 10.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 11. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. key to the flight deck door. B. certificate holder's manual. C. flashlight in good working order. C X 12.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.1,625 pounds. B.1,950 pounds. C.2,460 pounds. C X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 14.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 15.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 16.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 17.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 18. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 19.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 20. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 21..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 22. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 23. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 24.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 25.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 26.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 27.An air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot), for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.10 hours B.14 hours C.16 hours A X 28.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 31..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 32. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots B X 33.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 34.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute. B.1,400 feet/minute. C.1,364 feet/minute. C X 35. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 37. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 38.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 39..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 40.. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 41.. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. B X 42.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 43.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 44.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 45..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 46.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. B. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. C. Guidance, range, and visual information. C X 47.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. C X 48.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 49.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 50.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 51. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 52.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 53.. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.An alternate airport is required. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 54.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 56.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 57.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 58.. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. C X 59.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 60..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 61. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 62.. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 63.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 64.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 65.. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. B X 66..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 67. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 68.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 69.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 70.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 71.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.000 feet from the end C.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 72.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 73.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 74.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. warm front. B. stationary front. C. cold front. C X 75.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 76.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132,500 pounds? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C.Wet runway using brakes, spoilers and reversers. B X 77.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 78.. A plane, MH 60°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 79.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 80.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 81.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 82.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 83.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 84.. For scheduled airline, pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.G. B.S. C.R. B X 85.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.quite different to those of hypoxia B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 86.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 87. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 88.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 89.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 90.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 91. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 93.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2,224 pounds. B.1,987 pounds. C.1,454 pounds. A X 94..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 95.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 96.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 97.. When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 konts. C. Surface radiation. B X 98. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 99.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 100.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 2..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 3. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 4. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.2 NAV? A.1? B.-2? C.-4? C X 5..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 6.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. C X 7. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 8..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 9. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME C X 10.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Five B.Four C.Two A X 11.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 12.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 13.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 14.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 15.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 16.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A X 17.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. A X 18.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. A X 19.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.a participatory leader A X 20.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 21. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. A X 22. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 23.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 24.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 26. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.300 feet. C.750 feet. B X 28.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 29.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. A.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 30..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 31..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 32.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 33.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green. B X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 35. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 36..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 37.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 38. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C X 39..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 40. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 41.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 42.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 43..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. C. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. A X 44.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 45.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 46.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. B X 47.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 48. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 49. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 50.. During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. A X 51. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 53.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 54.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 55.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 56.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 57.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 58.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 59.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 60.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 61. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 62.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 63.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 64.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. C. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 65..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 66.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 67.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,000 feet. B.4,300 feet. C.4,500 feet. A X 68.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 69.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 70.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 72.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. B X 73.．Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 74.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 75.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; B X 76.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 78.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 79.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 80.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 81.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo" C.Conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 83.. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. C X 84. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 85.. In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds A X 86.. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low weight. B.Lower than at low weight. C.The same as at low weight. A X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 88.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 92. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 93.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 94.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 95.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 96.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 97.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 99..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 100.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 2. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 3.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 5.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 6.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 7..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 8.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 9.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 10.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 11.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 12.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 13.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 14..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 15.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gas-turbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 16..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 18.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 19..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 20. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 21. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 22.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 23.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 24..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 25. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 26. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 27.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 28.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 29. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 31.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. B X 33.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 35.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 37.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 38. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 39.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 40.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 41..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 42.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 44. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 47..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 48. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 49. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 50.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 51.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 52.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 53.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 54.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 55.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 56.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 57.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 58.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 59.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 61.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 62. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 63..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 64.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 65.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 66.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 67.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 68.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 70.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 72.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 73.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 74..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 75.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 76.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 77.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 78.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 79.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 82.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 83.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 84.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 85.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 86.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 87.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 88.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 89.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 90.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 91.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 92..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 93.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 97.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 98.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 99. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 100. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 2.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 3.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 4.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 5.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 7. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 8..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 9..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 10.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 12.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 13.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 14.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 16.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 17. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 18.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 20.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 21.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 22.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 23.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 24.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 25.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 28.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 29.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 31. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 32.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 33. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 34. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 35.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 36.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 37.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 38.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 39.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 41..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 43. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 44. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 45.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 46.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 47. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 49.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 50. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 53.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 54.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 55.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 56.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 57. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 60. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 61..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 62.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 64.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 65.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 66. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 67.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 68. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 69. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 70.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 71.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 72.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 73.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 74.．An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 75.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 76.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 77.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 78. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 79..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 80.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 81.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 82. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 83.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 84.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 85.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 86.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 87.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 88.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. C X 89.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.RPM. B.Exhaust gas temperature. C.Manifold pressure. C X 90. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. A X 91.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 92..(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds B X 93.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 94.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 95.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 96. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143,000 pounds? A.100 feet. B.400 feet. C.850 feet. C X 99.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 100.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 3.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 4.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 5.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 6.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 7.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 9.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 10.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 11.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. B X 12.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 13.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Below.75 Mach. B.From.75 to 1.20 Mach. C.From.1.20 to 2.5. Mach. A X 14.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 15.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. B X 16.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 17.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 18.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 19.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 20.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 21.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 22.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34,000 pounds. B.28,000 pounds. C.32,600 pounds. C X 23. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 24. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. C X 25.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. A X 26.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 27.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 28.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 29.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 30.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 31.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 32. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 33.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. A X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 35.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 36.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 37.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 38.. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. A X 39.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 115,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight. C X 41.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Notify ATC immediately. B. Squawk 7600. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 42.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. A X 43. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 44.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 45. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 46.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 47.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 48.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 5,400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.117,500 pounds. B.136,500 pounds. C.140,500 pounds. B X 49.. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 50. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250. C X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 52.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 53.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog C X 54.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. A X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 56.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 57.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 58.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 59..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 60.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 61..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 62.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. C X 63.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 64..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 65. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 66..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 67.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. There are altocumulus , stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. There are altostratus, stratocumulus, the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. There are cirrostratus , stratus , the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 68.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. A X 69.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 70.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 73.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.3,625 pounds. B.3,240 pounds. C.2,980 pounds. B X 74..Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. B X 75.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 76.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 77.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 78.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 79.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . A.plume B.virga C. dowdraft B X 80.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 81..The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. A X 82.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Angle of attack. B.Altitude. C.Airspeed. B X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 84.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 85.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 86.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 88.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 89. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 90.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 91. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 92. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 93.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 95.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 96.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 97.GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. A sovereign country or government unit C. The FAA Administrator only B X 98. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 99.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 100.Identify REIL. A.Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. C X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 2.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 3.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 4.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 5. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 6.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 7.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 8.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 9. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 10.. before takeoff, the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds, flat and gray bottoms with light rain. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 11. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 12..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 13. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 14.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 15..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 16.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 17..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 19.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 20..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 21.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. C X 22. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 23.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 24.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 25.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 27. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 28.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 29. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 30.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. B X 31.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 32.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.1 NAV? A.R-175 B.R-165 C.R-345 C X 34.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B X 35.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 37.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. C. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 38.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 39.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 40.. An outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will A.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C.decrease due to higher density altitude. C X 41..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 42.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. B X 43. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.1 NAV? A.5.0NM B.7.5NM C.10.0NM A X 44..Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front B X 45.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 46.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 47. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 48..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 49.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.Three light bar; red, green, and amber. B.One light projector with three colors; green, and amber. C.Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber. B X 50. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 51.. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 52.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 53. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. B X 54.．In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B C X 55.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 56.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. A X 57.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140,000 pounds, with gear down, flaps 30o, and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.16,200 pounds. C.17,700 pounds. B X 59.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 60.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 61.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 62.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B.Three C.Two B X 63. .Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b C X 64.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 65.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 66.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 67.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 68..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 71.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 72. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 73.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 74.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. A X 75. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 76. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 77.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 78.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 79.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 80.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 81.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 82.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 83.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 84..Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus B X 85.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 86. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 87.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 88.. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A.V2. B.V1. C.VEF. C X 89. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5,200-foot icy runway? A.124,000 pounds. B.137,000 pounds. C.108,000 pounds. B X 91.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 92. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 93.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. B X 94.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 96.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 97.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,000 feet short of the end of a 4,900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124,000 pounds. B.129,500 pounds. C.134,500 pounds. A X 98.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 99.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 187,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.14 minutes. B.16 minutes. C.17 minutes. C X 100.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 成绩合计 成绩单 题目正文 标准答案 用户选项 选项说明 1.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 2.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement A.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Coriolis illusion. C.the leans. B X 3.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Low-level wind share B. Microburst C. Turbulence A X 4.．During the flight, a good leader should not A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involve the team in most decision making processes. A X 5.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 6.. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. C X 7.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 8..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.166 B.346 C.354 C X 11.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 12.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 13.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 14. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. B.Not more than 2 hours. C.More than 6 hours. A X 15.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours A X 16.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 17. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 18.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 19.. In average, for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will . A. descend 2℃ B.descend 3℃ C. descend 4℃ A X 20.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change A X 21.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 22.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.140 knots. B.145 knots. C.148 knots. B X 23. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet. B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. C X 24. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 25.. [Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 26.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 27.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 28.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow A X 29.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 30. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 31.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. A X 32.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 34.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 35.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 36. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.the pilot in command only. A X 37.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 38..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 39.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. B X 41. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 42.. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 43. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B X 44.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 45.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.2.06 EPR. B.2.07 EPR. C.2.09 EPR. A X 46. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 47.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.12hours B.10hours C.8hours B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. A X 49.. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. A X 50.. Before taking off, the captain finds that on weather map, a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport, A.(接正文he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 51.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 52.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.(续正文than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees, 2 km B. 40 degrees, 2 km C. 30 degrees, 1.5 km A X 53.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 54.. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. A X 55.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 56.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 57.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 58.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 59.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 60.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 61.. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V2. B.VEF. C.V1. C X 62.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 63..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 64.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.35 hours B.32 hours C.30 hours A X 65.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 66. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 67.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 68.．Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 69.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. A X 70.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. B X 71. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 72.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 73. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 74.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 75. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 76. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 77.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.VLE. B.VMO/MMO. C.VLO/MLO. C X 78.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 79.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 80.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 82. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 83.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B. Position is not affected C. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 84.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 85. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C.Passenger manifest, company organization name, and cargo weight. A X 86.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 87.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 88.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 89.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 90.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 91. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 92.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 93.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 94.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 95.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 96.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 97.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 98. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. B X 99..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 100. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 成绩合计