RMIT University - Flight Training Meteorology2

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RMIT University - Flight Training CPL 3.06 Meteorology Required Equipment: AIP, PCA VFR (Day) Work Booklet PROGRESS TEST - RESIT 1. The area in which a tropical cyclone is most likely to form is: a) Over the Pacific Ocean near 15 degrees S b) Over continental Australia at 15 degrees S c) Over the Pacific Ocean about 25 degrees S d) Over land about 20 degrees S 2. During the mature stage of a tropical cyclone the central surface pressure : a) Remains constant b) Falls rapidly c) Begins to rise d) Increases the pressure gradient 3. In which situation is clear icing most likely: a) Very small droplets with temp just below zero b) Below minus 40 degrees C in cumuliform cloud c) In heavy rain below freezing level d) Above freezing level on climb in large cumuliform cloud 4. Clear ice is most likely to form on an aircraft flying in: a) Cirrus cloud b) Stratus cloud c) Thick altostratus cloud d) Lenticular cloud 5. If you are flying over a mountain ridge in strong winds, the most likely area that the worst turbulence would be is: a) Above the ridge b) Below the ridge c) Upwind of the ridge d) In the lee of the ridge 6. The Equatorial trough moves further north than it does south because: a) The earths axis is tilted b) The Northern hemisphere has lower average temps c) Coriolis force is zero at the equator d) The average surface temperature is higher because of larger land masses in the Northern hemisphere 7. Compared to daytime conditions, night time meteorological visibility is: a) Dependant on whether or not the object is illuminated b) reduced c) the same d) greater 8. Radiation fog occurs most frequently with: a) Light winds and clear skies at night b) Partial stratus cloud cover c) Complete cloud cover d) Dead calm conditions and cloudless skies at night 9. You are flying in an area of thunderstorms. The main hazard of lightning is: a) Holes in the aircraft skin b) Persons inside being electrocuted c) Failure of electrical systems d) The aircraft catching fire 10. Which of the following are associated with squall lines: a) clear skies, calm winds b) Heavy non stop rain c) Thunderstorms d) Land breezes 11. Advection fog is most likely produced by: a) cold air progressing over a cold surface b) cold air progressing over a warm surface c) a warm air mass passing over a colder surface d) a warm air mass passing over a hotter surface 12. Below 10000ft (AMSL) in VMC the minimum flight visibility is: a) 1 nm b) 2000 m c) 2 nm d) 5000 m 13. Poor visibility due to smoke haze may occur near industrial areas with: a) Anticyclonic weather, light winds and a surface inversion b) Unstable conditions and strong surface winds c) Light winds and unstable conditions d) Clear skies at night and strong winds 14. In a TAF and an ARFOR the wind is given in: a) TRUE for TAF but MAGNETIC for ARFOR b) TRUE in both cases c) TRUE for ARFOR and MAGNETIC for TAF d) MAGNETIC for both 15. When will a land breeze be strongest? a) Around sunrise b) During the evening c) Around noon d) About 2pm 16. What is the temperature range that clear ice is likely to be most severe? a) -15o to -35oC b) +15o to +35oC c) 0o to +15oC d) 0o to -15oC 17. How will fog dissipate? a) With the formation of cirrus cloud b) A fall in temperature c) An increase in wind speed d) An increase in relative humidity 18. Cloud amounts are measured in: a) eighths of the sky obscured b) tenths of the sky obscured c) percentage of the sky remaining clear d) eighths of the sky remaining clear 19. The flying conditions above a layer of small cumulus clouds are likely to be: a) smooth b) very turbulent c) smooth but with strong updrafts d) bumpy 20. The hazard to flight which is most likely to occur in the rotor zone associated with mountain waves is: a) line squall b) icing c) hail d) severe turbulence 21. Refer VFR (Day) Work Booklet – MSL Analysis, Figure 49, pg 44 The line PR indicates the position of a : a) front b) ridge c) line of equal pressure d) trough 22. Area forecasts for flights below 20000ft are available: a) on request from any ATS or MET office b) on 3 hr notice from any MET office c) on 3hr notice from an ATS office only d) on 1hrs notice from any ATS or MET office 23. The following message was issued during a briefing: SPECI YSXX 2310Z 110/10G20KT 8000 FEW003 BKN006 17/16 Q 1016 This message is: a) a routine aerodrome forecast, which is valid till 2410UTC b) a routine aerodrome report which will be updated at regular intervals c) an aerodrome report issued when conditions have deteriorated below specified limits d) a special forecast issued when conditions are expected to deteriorate below specified limits 24. An alternate will always be required if the destination’s TAF includes the term- a) TEMPO b) INTER c) PROB d) PROVISIONAL 25. The following cloud is forecast in an ARFOR: SCT SC 4500/6500 The height of the cloud base is: a) 4500 to 6500 ft AGL b) 4500 to 5500 ft AMSL c) 4500 ft AMSL d) 4500 ft AGL 26. Refer PCA Chart and VFR (Day) Work Booklet- Sydney WAC, Page 38-39 and ARFOR TAF 4 page 48 You departed WAGGA WAGGA (YSWG) at time 0000Z for a flight to MERIMBULA (YMER) via CANBERRA. Your ETA at YMER is 0200Z The lowest forecast cloud and coverage for the YSWG-YSCB route segment of the flight is: a) 5 -7 eighths of cumulus / strato cumulus base 5000 ft b) 5 –7 eighths of stratus, base 3000 ft c) 1 -4 eighths cumulus, base 4000 ft d) 5 -7 eighths stratus, base 1000 ft 27. Low level jet streams can be hazardous because they produce : a) strong vertical windshear near the surface b) strong horizontal windshear near the surface c) strong vertical windshear at high altitudes d) strong horizontal windshear at high altitudes 28. A katabatic wind tends to reinforce: a) an anabatic breeze b) a land breeze c) a sea breeze d) a low level jet 29. The Pressure gradient force acts: a) at right angles to the isobars towards the lower pressure b) at right angles to the isobars towards the higher pressure c) along the isobars and clockwise for a low pressure system d) along the isobars and anticlockwise for a high pressure system 30. Refer VFR (Day) Work Booklet – MSL Analysis, Figure 49 on Page 44 The weather conditions to be expected at PERTH (YPPH) over the next 24hrs are: a) a warm south easterly change with the possibility of showers b) widespread low cloud and continuous rain c) a warm northwesterly change and clear skies d) a cold southwesterly change with the possibility of showers and thunderstorms 31. The major hazard to a landing aircraft associated with a microburst is: a) wind shear and downdraft b) reduced visibility c) wind shear and updraft d) heavy precipitation 32. Conditional stability exists when: a) both saturated and unsaturated air are stable b) both saturated and unsaturated air are unstable c) saturated air is unstable but unsaturated air is stable d) saturated air is stable but unsaturated air is unstable 33. When the Coriolis force is exactly balanced by the Pressure Gardient Force, the resulting wind is called: a) Geostrophic b) Gradient c) Cyclonic d) Anticyclonic RMIT University - Flight Training CPL 3.06 Meteorology RESIT – ANSWERS 1. a 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. a